by cube » Thu 10 Jul 2008, 05:23:01
$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('Precipice', 'H')i all,
Many a time I have read about how western Europe manages to get by on about half the oil consumption per capita as the US, and in many ways (west) Europeans generally have living standards which are slightly better than their US cousins. This curious situation has me wondering: what might the correlation be between average living standards and oil consumption per capita in a given country??
1) I disagree with your numbers but moving along now
2) wisconsin_cur raises some good points
3) my turn now
This has been asked many times and there is a general consensus on this board with the exception of a minority of cornucopians --> you can NOT have decreasing energy use and an expanding economy.
example:
Suppose you have an economy that produces aluminum from bauxite ore. BTW aluminum smelting is one of the most energy intensive industries imaginable. The ratio of energy use to GDP is astronomically high. However if there was an economy that instead produced electric trains from aluminum metal the end product would be much more valuable thus the energy to GDP ratio would be smaller. Sounds great right? If you were running your own country it would make more sense to be in the business of producing aluminum trains but there's a problem. Not every nation can produce trains. SOMEBODY on this planet has to produce the aluminum metal or how the hell could you build a train?
One of the reasons why Europe enjoys such a low energy use to GDP is because a lot of the dirty, heavy energy manufacturing has been sent to Asia. China for example has a very high energy use per GDP ratio.
here's a good article. It's 5 pages long but just read the first and that explain alot:
China Grabs West’s Smoke-Spewing Factories$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', 'H')ANDAN, China — When residents of this northern Chinese city hang their clothes out to dry, the black fallout from nearby Handan Iron and Steel often sends them back to the wash.