Bart, I've always had one pretty simple question about Marx's notion of 'false consciousness': if there is such a thing as a 'false consciousness', why would Karl Marx himself be able to escape it and to analyze it in an objective manner? How can one get 'outside' of it, as an intellectual (which Marx was)? (Much later, post-structuralists like Deleuze and Derrida will say: there is no 'outside', no 'objective' reality; and the notion of 'representation', both in a political sense as in a linguistic sense, is completely bankrupt. To be more precise: Deleuze said "there is only interiority", his idea of "immanence"; while Derrida said the same thing but came to the conclusion that there is only "exteriority", an endless play of empty signifiers, with the signifié always being pinned down to it, after the fact, by "authoritarian" cultural structures). So this is a question of representation.
As you know, Marx made the switch from writing history books in an early phase (
historical representation) to
political 'representation' in the strongest sense, in a later phase (with the Manifesto - Lenin later inflated this, with his theory of a spearhead elite).
Marx fused linguistic representation and political representation. But where does his authority to do this come from?
Marxists have always ignored this fact, namely that they themselves and their entire theoretical framework is always already determined ('overdetermined' as they would call it).
They sometimes try to reason themselves out of this contradiction, by stating that you can write the history of capitalism, with a very specific method (historic materialism). If you do this you see the roots of the system, and you can track the gradual formation of this false consciousness. But then, why would the entire theory of historic materialism not be 'stained' already by this supposed false consciousness...?
In other words: why would Marxists be 'representative' or 'representants' of any kind of reality? (As Derrida would say: Marxists
erase the trace of themselves being always already determined by the thing they're trying to describe. And this is their violence.)
(Hegel was asked the same question: why would
you know that 'dialectics' is the universal law of history? His answer almost came down to violently screaming: "because I am God!"

)
I'm not an expert, but do you know how Marxists get out of this simple contradiction? You seem to know a lot about this. Maybe you have an answer.