It never ceases to amaze me that there are actually people out there, people who I *assume* are not part of the gilded class, that profess that individuals need to be mandated to keep their obligations at any cost, yet businesses, corporations and the like can do whatever the hell they want to do and it's just OK.
First things first: yes, the people couldn't afford those houses should have never got them. And the banks should have never lent the money.
On to the actual post: why
shouldn't the bank have to prove it's legal liability?
I'll use myself as an example. I have a mortgage on my house. I've lived in the same house for 16 years. I'm halfway through the mortgage. I put down a significant amount of money on my house, and almost 70% of the value of the house is my equity, the remainder is the mortgage. I have always made all my payments, on time (early, actually). I have a credit score well over 800, with not a single late payment or other problem, in 25 years of credit history. I originally took my mortgage out with a local bank, and that was who I made my payments to for about the first 5 years. Then my mortgage started getting sold like a high-mileage car. The "servicer" of my mortgage changed 5 times in 10 years, 3 times in the last 4 years alone. Currently my mortgage holder is CitiMortgage. They bought the mortgage Spring 2009.
About a month after they bought my mortgage, they sent me a letter notifying me that I had a late payment and was being charged $26.25 for the late payment. So I called them up to find out what they were talking about. They told me it was a late charge from a late payment to one of the companies that had owned my mortgage about 4 years previous

. I told them I've never had a late payment, had all my records, nor had ever received a letter from that company or the one prior to CitiMortgage about a late payment, so I asked them what month & year payment they were talking about. They told me "We don't have that information, we just have the information that you were late one time". I told them they were going to have to prove it to me before I would pay, and I asked what would happen if I don't pay? They said the charge would stay on my record and I wouldn't be able to get my clear title without paying it. "Fine", I said - I'm going to ignore this charge for the next 14 years, and if it's still there at the end, after 14 years of financial erosion of the $26, I'll just go ahead and pay it at that time. In the meantime, once a month, I get a letter from CitiMortgage advising me that I have this $26 charge on my account that's going to stay there forever until I pay. I'm going to make sure they spend at least $26 in postage and materials trying to collect their bullshit $26 charge that I don't owe.
Now, someone tell me why they shouldn't have to prove when I incurred this late charge? I'm supposed to just take their word for it? I feel the same way about the foreclosure process. If the paperwork is screwed up, how is that the homeowner's fault? If they're going to foreclose, and the homeowner has equity in the house, absolutely they should have to prove without question that they a)have legal right to foreclose, b) they own the mortgage, and c) the homeowner has not made the payments.
After fueling up their cars, Twyman says they bowed their heads and asked God for cheaper gas.There was no immediate answer, but he says other motorists joined in and the service station owner didn't run them off.