by Grifter » Mon 02 Jul 2007, 17:18:31
$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('eastbay', '[')i]However, low income consumers that do not participate in such gains (in bio-energy) may be adversely affected in their access to food.
In the concluding remarks of The World Agricultural Outlook 2030-2050, kindly linked by Lorenzo, I found this rediculous yet telling sentence.
I believe that one sentence sums it up nicely.
Actually, I quite like the article, I'm still reading it.
$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', 'T')he main reason is that zero population growth at the
global level will be the net result of continuing increases
in some countries (e.g. by some 31 million annually in
2050 in Africa and South and Western Asia together)
compensated by declines in others (e.g. by some 10
million annually in China, Japan and Europe together)8.
Nearly all the further population increases will be
occurring in countries several of which even in 2050 may
still have inadequate food consumption levels, hence
significant scope for further increases in demand. The
pressures for further increases of food supplies in these
countries will continue.
I'm hoping to find out more about what this assumption is based on. I mean, if the population of Europe, china and Japan is going to fall, that means no growth in the economy. Doesn't it? Also no increase in population from immigration but also not even ZPG, actually a falling population level. Africa and South and Western Asia on the other hand will have a growing population.
Will it be beneficial in those coutries in the future? In 2050? Will the west still be exporting food to Africa? Will it not be desirable to come here?
I don't know, thanks lorenzo.