by Micki » Tue 05 Sep 2006, 19:50:26
$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', 'A')ctually, that's wrong. One defines 'cheap' as a relative term. In a recession or depression, prices must fall from a good bit to a hell of a lot to stay in the same range of effect on the consumers' wallets. If your income drops 50%, then you would need oil to drop 50% in the same amount of time for the oil to still retain its "cheapness". But as it peaks, even in a depression, the price would still go up, thus losing its cheapness.
Sorry, neeed to disagree.
In a depression oil price does not keep going up unless demand outpaces the supply. So unless there is a significant drop in supply, you would in a depressionary scenario more likely see demand dropping off faster thus resulting in dropping prices. So it depends on how fast we slide down the PO slope.
Secondly with relativety, that is just one way of meassuring cheapness. The relativity can be compared to previous price, affordability (your case) or cheapness of the product compared to other products (i.e. oil is cheaper than mineral water but a lot more necessary).
And to Gideon;
$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', 'I') thought that peak oil was when production peaked, not when the amount out of the ground is half.
That is what I said. As mentioned the two are often considered to coinside. i.e. in a well the upper half of the stuff is easy to pump up and the bottom half is harder. So it all goes well until the mid-point when it starts to get harder, thus resulting in a drop of extraction rate. You then just apply the same principle on a global scale.
What may alter this is 1; if economy creates a drop in demand or 2; technology allows faster extraction of the remaining half and 3; new large discoveries are put to production to impact on PO.
Anyway, roughly PO would happen about the same time as half the oil is out.