by jdmartin » Fri 03 Jun 2005, 23:15:47
$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('Pfish', 'D')oes a holder of a bond have rights to the assets the bond was issued on?
Case in point: Fannie Mae had been shoveling off these brilliant 2-5 ARMs as bonds on the market. My understanding is China and other Asian nations have bought these. Now, it seems when the market turns there will be a lot of defaults and foreclosures--there always are. But does the holder of the bond have access to the property as collateral?
Back in the 80's the US suckered Japan into buying property at highly inflated values--Sears Tower, Pebble Beach to name a few. As soon as the market swamped, the banks in Japan took it on the nose and did not recover for many years.
So is the US doing it again to a different trading partner? Or would China own title to the land?
PP
Depends on the bond. Some bonds are issued with specific collateral, although I don't think it is commonly property. For example, municipal bonds might be issued with a certain revenue source as collateral, so that if the city defaulted the bond holder would have access to that collateral. Usually things end up in bankruptcy rather than simply defaulting, which also means you get pennies or nothing on the dollar.
I would guess the fannie mae type bonds are backed by the credit of the United States rather than the property itself. So in theory they're risk-free since it is assumed that if Fannie Mae couldn't pay, Uncle Sam would pony up in their place. If we just decided "Screw it, we're not paying", there's probably nothing short of war to make us pay, but it would be fairly certain no one would be loaning us money anymore, meaning the economy would crash pretty hard and fast.
In short, it would be ugly.