by JohnDenver » Tue 12 Apr 2005, 21:43:18
$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('nero', 'N')ot all "new science" right now is expensive (some is) but there is a general trend towards science becoming more expensive.
On the face of it, that sounds reasonable, but how do you quantify it? It's a little like saying: "there is a general trend towards people becoming more rude these days". A couple of anecdotes isn't really sufficient to establish the point you're trying to prove.
What you are trying to say seems to be something like: "There is an inherent principle governing science which makes subsequent steps more expensive than previous steps." I don't see any reason why that should be true of science in general. It certainly isn't true of mathematical physics of the sort Stephen Hawking is involved in. In real terms, each subsequent unit costs the same as the previous unit -- i.e. the only cost is supporting the person involved in the research.
I think, at best, you are making a point about a very limited subset of science which is expensive due to its subject matter.
$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', 'I') am certainly extrapolating the diminishing returns trend well out into the future when I speculate about encountering a barrier but does anyone argue that we are
not encountering diminishing returns on our scientific investments?
Yes, I would argue that. In the context of science, how do you measure "return"? Big colliders and deep space probes are built to answer questions which have no immediate practical application. Does this mean they have no return? Scientifically, they certainly have a return: more information. It seems a little strange to bemoan the lack of return from projects which were designed without any aim to yield a return.
For contrast, consider investment in research to cure a disease like cancer, polio or AIDS. Is each subsequent investment more expensive than the previous investment? Do successive units of investment yield less and less return? It doesn't seem that way. It seems, rather, that successive units of investment yield no return whatsoever for long periods, and then one day BING! you get a big return.
I don't believe the Law of Diminishing Returns is a physical law. It makes sense to say that adding additional units of labor to the cultivation of a finite plot will yield diminishing returns. But the study of disease (for example) is not confined by a finite plot. An animal model can be replicated at research sites all over the world, and there is no reason to believe that adding additional units of labor to the problem will lead to diminishing returns.
Why do you believe that the Law of Diminishing Returns applies to science? Can you explain the rationale in an easy to understand way (i.e. similar to how the law is generally explained relating to inputs of an agricultural plot or factory)? For example:
"The usual argument in favor of diminishing marginal physical returns is in terms of crowding: if you put too many seeds (or too much fertilizer) in the ground, eventually each additional increment pays off less than previous ones."