This is convoluted. The US promises to repay the Fed x dollars + interest. The Fed takes the promise, and creates money to represent the promised amount, and the Treasury injects the money into the economy (theoretically) as directed by Congress (government gpending).
The Fed (again, theoretically) has a reserve of assets against which it makes these loans. On the loan, in the box that says "Employment and Income," the Treasury writes "about 200 million working slaves."
The Fed looks over the moral of the peons, and if everything looks good, says "ok" and fires up the press.
The agreement is that The US Government has offered your work as collateral for a loan. If you don't work, the US Gov't has agreed to beat you until you're motivated to repay their debt to the Fed. If you still don't pay, they'll put you in prison until you "repay your debt to them."
Caveat: The Fed uses a fractional reserve system when it lends to the Treasury. If the Fed has $100 in "assets," it can lend $1,000 or even $10,000 to the Treasury as long as it's a "good bet." (Peons look happy and they're working hard)
Fed banks also lend to each other internally, and externally directly to the peons that want to pretend they're masters. In this case, the thing the peon buys is the collateral, and the fractional reserve the Fed keeps in its vaults is the asset it uses to back the currency it creates for the loan.
While we can easily keep tabs on how much money the Fed creates for the Treasury, we have no way of knowing how much the Fed has created to lend directly to peons unless they release the information - which they don't.
It's difficult to conceive that the Fed has run out of money to lend and is asking the Treasury to provide it with a "backstop." The only way the Treasury can do this, is by creating and selling a bond. The procedes from the bond could then be handed over to the Fed, placed in the Magical Multiplying Vault, and the streets would again flow with milk, honey and dollars.
The Fed statistics seem to suggest they're backing at around 20 to 1. I may not be reading that correctly, but it's close.
I assume the "non-borrowed" column represents the value of reserves owned outright, minus the value of reserves they have leased "borrowed" to lend against. It could also mean the total reserves not lent against. I'm not sure.
The data is pretty cryptic, but superficially we see that the Fed has $-122,367,000,000 of "unborrowed" reserves. Again, I think that's an odd way of saying that they're exposed for $122B in loans against their reserves, or it represents how short they are on reserves compared to how much they should be holding for the amount of money they have created. It also looks like they are claiming $841,771,000,000 in "money supply."
M1 and M2 data for this period are in the ballpark of $1.39T and $7.713T respectively.
Can anyone help put this puzzle together? I can't seem to find a relationship here. There's a roughly $54 billion difference between the M1 supply figure and the "money base" figure on their reserve data sheet.
This should be:
total reserves + currency stock (M1?) + deposits and vault cash.
Odd. Any help would be appreciated.
$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('RonMN', 'E')li is making a huge point here...a point that I've been scratching my head over.
The Fed-Resrv prints the dollar & loans it to the US treasury. That is how a dollar is born...it is loaned into existance.
So what the heck is happening when the US treasury is issuing Treasury notes to "liquify" the fed?
I don't get it (?) Can anybody enlighten me?