by MrBill » Wed 16 Nov 2005, 09:49:57
$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('bobbyald', 'I') haven't read all the answers above but the simple answer is this:
When the FED creates $1,000 then all the other banks are allowed to create money as well ($6,000 in your example).
Yes they just create it out of thin air like magic.
It seems strange to a newbie that banks can create money by simply writing a number in a book but they can.
The only restriction is that they need to hold a certain % of their assets ("real" plus created) in "real" money.
If this % is say, 5%, then the FED creating $1,000 would allow banks to create an additional $19,000.
Lower the reserve % to 2% and banks could create an additional $49,000.
This whole process is referred to as "Fractional Reserve Banking".
How would you like to own a bank then?
You are just so wrong. I am constantly amazed that dumb people take the time to write completely wrong information in response to an honest question?
Under Basel II each asset has to be funded based on a sliding scale of riskiness from 0% in the case of investment grade OECD government bonds to 50% for sub-investment grade bonds to 100% for in the money derivative contracts for example. The main difference between Basel I & II is that it allows sophisticated banks who can prove their risk management models are robust the privilege of netting transactions, so that long US treasuries and short German bunds would not technically be considered two different tranactions requiring separate margins, but two offsetting transactions where there is a high degree of negative correlation. Despite what you may or not think of VAR models they underpin most modern risk management systems.
In any case, liabilities such as bank deposits are also subject to interest rate gap rules and capital adequacy ratios, plus minimum reserve requirements controlled by the FED or whichever CB we're talking about here. Therefore your example that banks can just create money out of thin air is not even close to reality. Some savings banks are net lenders to the interbank market while some or net borrowers such as investment banks. Any shortfall in deposits can be met through interbank lending or elligible banks may borrow from the Fed window or their respective lender of last resort.
In addition, in most developed countries, a system of deposit insurance is in place which is mandatory scheme in which insured banks pay a percentage of all deposits to a central pool to cover any runs on any member banks to prevent contagion. This was obviously not in place during 1929 for example.
Banks are also only allowed to lend out maximum amounts to any one counterpart, company or invest in any one asset or security to prevent concentration risk. This might be typically 10% of any given new issue by any borrower or a maximum of 25% to any related parties, but it is hard to generalize as the ratios vary from country to country.
As has been pointed out by Nero, during a deep recession with asset prices falling fractional reserve banking or even the system of fiat currencies do not breed inflation. The BoJ would have liked some inflation in their system during the past 10-years to stimulate some demand in the local economy.
Why are there so many stupid people attracted to peak oil like moths to an open flame? I am convinced that as we pump the last barrel of oil the ranters will be in this forum arguing about fiat currencies and how evil fractional reserve banking is, but they still will not have cracked a book to actually learn how and why the system works? Nope, too much personal effort involved.
Better to say, WTSHTF we're all SCRU'D! Hillary in 2008

The organized state is a wonderful invention whereby everyone can live at someone else's expense.