A little help would be appreciated from all you well read, well rounded, well informed Peakoil contributers...no, but seriously, I've just been reading the first few chapters of Richard Manning's "Against the Grain- how agriculture has hijacked civilization"(recommended by a Peakoiler, can't remember who). I was finding it fascinating, and convincing, til I got to this remarkable passage:
"On this planet, glaciation is not the exception but the norm. Over the last billion years or so, a regular cycle has governed the earth, characterized by glaciations lasting sixty to ninety thousand years, interrupted by brief interglacials of roughly ten thousand years."
Now, I'm no expert on the climatic and geological history of our planet, but I've done enough reading over the years to gain the distinct impression that the general consensus is rather different from Manning's summary. About exactly the opposite different in fact- glaciation is not the norm, but the exception. For most of our planet's history there was no polar ice at all. There have been four ice ages in the 4.5 billion years since earth was formed, and the ice age we find ourselves in right now only got going properly about 3 million years ago. That 3 million years has been characterized by glacial and interglacial cycles. The previous billion certainly was not.
Does that sound about right? Is it possible that Manning got it that wrong? If so, how can a guy who I've heard name-checked a lot over the years, and quite a few times here, be taken seriously? I'm kinda hoping someone will explain to me how I've got it all wrong, cos I was enjoying the book so much. If I'm not wrong, I really don't think I'll read anymore. If his understanding of the world(and basic research!)is that poor, I don't see why I should take seriously anything else he has to say. So, help me out with my ultra-geeky problem here, willya?




