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Incongruity of economics and physics

Discussions about the economic and financial ramifications of PEAK OIL

Re: Incongruity of economics and physics

Unread postby LoneSnark » Wed 28 Nov 2007, 20:55:10

I know your words are directed at MrBill, but if you do not mind I would like to attempt to address your questions.

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', ' ')the talking heads were talking about how good it was that a lot of people showed up at the mall to buy a ton of stuff for Christmas, and that sales were up 3%...Then they went on to discuss how great of a season it'll be for investors if the pace keeps up. They said if it's good enough, it will lift our economy out of the "correction" it is currently enduring. Hmmmm....

Any economy involves a lot of give and take. Some industries are shrinking, some are growing. The various companies that make up the world economy taken together act like politburo planners, placing their bets as to what they should produce today in hopes of selling it tomorrow. The talking heads already knew that business had planned for a big holiday turnout, this is why the talking heads were so happy to see sales up 3% this year: it tells them that the planners guessed right.

If sales were down 3% instead it would mean the planners guessed wrong and in turn misallocated resources by producing too much holiday goods, resources which could have either been saved for later or used elsewhere. In turn, their reward for misallocating scarce resources with alternative uses is losses, potentially to the point of bankruptcy.

For an economy, losses are often more important than profits because they eventually put an end to wasteful behavior. Now, this is a disaster for the owners and investors of wasteful companies, but for everyone else it is a benefit because it rescues resources for someone else to use, hopefully in a more effective and thus profitable way than the prior owners.

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', 'S')o clearly, there's some "benefit" (hidden to me) for the close each night on the nightly news to report that the stock market closed "up."

You accepted the concept of prices earlier: "I'll trade you 4 onions for 7 heads of lettuce." Adam Smith spent several chapters demonstrating just how arbitrary what we call 'money' really is. But, given what is money, we arrive at prices for everything: $7 for an onion, $4 for a head of lettuce. These prices reflect the relative scarcity of the real world: lettuce is relatively easy to get compared to onions. If you double the amount of money in circulation then onions go for $14 and lettuce for $8, you have not changed anything about these items because you have not changed anything in reality. Prices themselves do not matter, just the ratio between them.

Similarly, a stock index tracks nothing more than the prices of the indexed stocks (as you know). Stock prices go up or down for any number of relevant reasons I will not go into. But all indexed companies have costs and revenues. If a company is properly allocating resources by turning low valued resources into high valued products or services then its profits will grow. The index, therefore, is an overall measure of how well the indexed companies are allocating resources. If the stock index goes up, that means traders agree that companies are allocating well (getting more for less). But, if stock prices fall, that means traders believe businesses have planned and allocated poorly, wasting resources and making us all poorer for it (we got less for more). As such, yes, when the stock market goes up you should get a positive vibe.

This, of course, is a simplification. There are bubbles, crashes, recessions, index shift, fraud, etc, which I did not go into for the sake of brevity.
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Re: Incongruity of economics and physics

Unread postby Duende » Thu 29 Nov 2007, 00:45:04

Thanks for the explanation LoneSnark. I'm going to have to read about economics more I guess. Any good recommendations that aren't going to put me to sleep would be welcomed.

In the meantime, I'm going to try to bring this back to Peak Oil again.

LoneSnark wrote:
$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', 'I')f a company is properly allocating resources by turning low valued resources into high valued products or services then its profits will grow. The index, therefore, is an overall measure of how well the indexed companies are allocating resources.

So, if I'm to understand, the better that companies allocate resources, then profits will grow. Profits mean a higher index. Over time, the index has indeed grown. So, companies have gotten better at allocating resources - pushing more products, using more energy, etc.

You know, this is silly. The more I think about it, the peak will usher in the recognition of massive limitations to our growth based economy. Yes, supply and demand will continue - so those economic principles will remain; things of value will still be traded. But the growth based index just seems like a house of cards to me; it seems ethereal, and subject to great disruption when the peak occurs.
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Re: Incongruity of economics and physics

Unread postby OneStepAtATime » Thu 29 Nov 2007, 01:25:31

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('Duende', ' ') You know, this is silly. The more I think about it, the peak will usher in the recognition of massive limitations to our growth based economy.


I don't want to challenge the whole premise of the site, let alone neo-classical economics, but the concept of a generalized (as opposed to oil specific) peak, or generalized scarcity, is a colossal mistake and the seed of all the unhappiness that ever existed.

The universe (and, derivatively, the supply of resources in the universe) is, if not actually infinite, certainly for all practical purposes infinite in relation to the demand of any individual or even the human race as a whole. There is, in the entire universe, an essentially unlimited supply of energy (and everything else). Even limiting ourselves to this one planet, there seems to be, on planet earth, numerous otherwise unutilized and dissapating energy supplies (solar, geothermal, tidal, other hydropower, wind) that could provide more than enough energy to meet current societal energy needs -- although the problem of the current age is how to package those energy sources as compactly as oil and other hydrocarbons have been packed -- along with this issue of global warming.

Now, I admit that there are current knowledge limitations on our ability to exploit the resources of the universe in ways that we may "want" to -- but I am pretty sure that every sustained want eventually fulfills itself. And I am certain that the limitation is knowledge (imagination), not resources -- that our blocks are mental, not physical.
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Re: Incongruity of economics and physics

Unread postby LoneSnark » Thu 29 Nov 2007, 03:07:00

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', 'T')he more I think about it, the peak will usher in the recognition of massive limitations to our growth based economy...But the growth based index just seems like a house of cards to me; it seems ethereal, and subject to great disruption when the peak occurs.

Let me put this to you one last way: Both Fed-Ex and Chevron are listed on a NYSE index. Time passes and the price of oil doubles. Just between these two companies, what would be the impact on the index? Well, Chevron has fixed costs, so all the extra money it gets from FedEx's fuel bill is pure profits, and every extra penny FedEx pays to Chevron is pure losses. So, if FedEx looses everything that Chevron gains, the net effect should be a wash (FedEx falls, Chevron goes up). But, of course, that is not the end of the story: FedEx and UPS stop competing, tacking on fuel surcharges to their customers, limiting their losses.

Well, now Chevron stock is soaring and FedEx stock fell slightly: the index went up! Sure, such examples are rare, but they sure do seem like a conspiracy against the public, don't they?

This is because the relative market power of all the companies in the index compared to the public at large has increased. This is why economists nowadays no longer believe oil shocks induce recessions: they tend to be a wash, shifting wealth from consumers to businesses.
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Re: Incongruity of economics and physics

Unread postby MrBill » Thu 29 Nov 2007, 05:18:22

Excellent posts! Thanks.

As LoneSnark explained prices are relative.

So if there is a given supply of 'available money' - however you want to define it - and a fixed supply of 'usable energy' then the price of energy in money is price X as the current demand reaches an equilibrium with available supply.

This in no way assumes supply is unlimited just because price X goes up. A common mistake. It means demand has risen relative to available supply.

This would be classic micro-economic theory. The problem or the accusation raised against such simplistic notions is 'that the world just does not work this way!' But adding in layers of complexity - millions of energy transactions between millions of individual consumers does not change the basic assumptions. It just makes predicting the resulting supply and demand equilibrium at price X or at new price 2X more difficult.

As LoneSnark mentioned, double the 'available money', but keep 'usable energy' the same and 'all things being equal' the nominal price of usuable energy will double. Not that twice the amount of usable energy will materialise out of nowhere. That is also why money is not a substitute for energy. Again a common mistake.

However, back in the real world - that people are so fond of speaking about - there are more variables than just money and a single good like energy. There are also, for example, Britney Spears CDs. You have now added another layer of complexity, but the assumptions remain the same.

Your 'available money' now has to be split between 'usable energy' and Britney Spears CDs. It is the consumer's choice. They can spend $20 filling-up with a tank of gas, or they can give that $20 to the music value-chain that produced, edited, printed, distributed and sold that CD for $20.

If you chose to buy a tank of gas then you get to use that energy. If you chose to buy a Britney Spears CD then you have literally given those amoung that music value-chain the money to buy that energy. You have not generated more 'available money' nor have you changed the amount of 'usable energy' that is available for consumption. They will be driving around in their Hummers and flashing the euros that they bought with your dollars, while I assume you will be happily at home listening to your newest Britney Spears’ CD.

That growth in the economy from producing CDs does not create any extra 'usable energy' just because it did help generate a profit in the music value-chain and therefore helped the economy to grow. Therefore, 'all things being equal' there will be less 'available energy' because they needed some of it to produce and distribute that CD, but also to cruise around in their Hummers. And the price of the available 'usable energy' should increase in price because a) some was used, and b) that growth in the economy added money supply and therefore increases 'available money' for the whole economy.

Had you just burned that tank of gas yourself to cruise up and down the boulevard or visit friends it would have produced 'some' growth in GDP stemming from the energy value-chain of exploring, drilling, extracting, transporting, refining and distributing gasoline, but in the end some of that net gain was destroyed when you burned the tank of gasoline without generating any new economic activity.

However, the economic activity generated from the music value-chain takes something for free - Britney Spears' voice - and adds in other free inputs - the labor of technicians and producers - with the small costs of printing a CD, and physically distributing it, then selling it for $20 retail, which includes all those direct and indirect costs, plus a margin that is their profit. That profit gets added to economic growth.

That is not to say that Britney Spears, or those technicians and producers, work for free, but labor is a free input the same as finding oil in the ground. There may be real costs associated with finding and extracting it, or turning it into a usable output, but the input itself is literally free. For example, I can decide to go to work today or I can decide to sleep all day. In other words I can choose to sell my labor or let it expire worthless. Or as they say, time keeps on ticking into the future. The same as 'unusable energy' is worthless until it is captured and then used or turned into something valuable.

Money is not a direct substitute for energy, but if the price of labor falls relative to the price of energy then I can substitute more manual labor for expensive energy and vice versa. If labor becomes too expensive then I can substitute mechanization that requires more energy, but less labor. That in no way assumes that money, energy or labor are available in unlimited quantities. So substitution can only take place within the limits of available supply and no more.

However, available supply can be increased if relative prices change. But only up to the limit of total supply. I have one supply curve at price X, and another supply curve at 2X, but they need not be linear. That also does not mean that at 100X that I get 100 times supply. Supply may simply be limited and/or 'available money' may have increased faster than 'usable energy'.

So 'usable energy' will be subject to the natural laws of thermodynamics and Nature's limitations, whereas 'available money' is a relative concept as money supply can increase or contract. And the prices between land, labor, capital, and the technology or know-how to employ them efficiently, can change relative to one another and relative to 'usable energy'. In fact new technology can change the amount of 'usable energy' as well. So think of their relationship to one another as more of a snapshot in time rather than a continuous or absolute one.

Probably still too simplistic for the real world, but the concepts are the same even as we add more layers of complexity. That leads us to macro-economics.

The same applies to the stock market. A given amount of 'available money' to be allocated to all consumption and investment (future consumption). Investment is again allocated between non-financial investments (such as houses) and financial investments like equity, fixed income and derivatives. And investment in equity is allocated between domestic stocks, foreign stocks, indices and equity derivatives. Investment in domestic stocks is allocated between growth stocks, large cap stocks, small cap stocks, seasonals, defensive stocks, etc. And on it goes.

New layers of complexity, but ultimately allocating a fixed pot of money between current and future consumption. Capital and money markets act as a bridge between the two. Of course, the future means uncertainty, so some investments will provide a real return and others will destroy wealth. Or rather transfer it from the losers to the winners.

Why people are usually happy when the market goes up rather than down is - not because those who already sold now see that they could have made more money had they waited - but because the risks are usually asymmetrical. Not all those that make losses can afford them. So usually the small investor is happier when their investments rise. Whereas those that can afford the losses are either more diversified - so what loses money is offset by what makes money - or their time horizon is longer and they are confident that they will make ‘more’ money on their investments over time.

However, if you throw in peak oil resource depletion then not all investments will prove to be wise over time either. As we say in Marketing & Strategy is that it is just as important to know what not to do as to do something simply well. If you are investing in 'sunset industries' then you may see them as 'a cash cow', but over the long-term you should be diverting those excess profits into more sustainable investments because you see – or assume rather - that the future will be different than the past.

Hence investing into a period of resource depletion - or in a transition to a lower equilibrium - means you have to choose investments that either hold new promise or at least hold their value relative to other investments. In other words, if all financial investments go down by two-thirds, and yours only go down by one-third, then relative to other investors, you have preserved your wealth, and so your new level of wealth has twice the purchasing power as their new levels of wealth.

You may all be poorer than before because 'usable energy' fell more quickly than new technology could cope with the transition, but ultimately you would like you and your family's future to be relatively better off than average. And ideally you would like to preserve enough wealth to be able to buy what is for sale - food, clothing, shelter, heat - to provide for your needs.

Sometimes one invests to get rich, but a better long-term plan is to invest so you have the financial means - and skills - to deal with an uncertain future. Farmland may be a better long-term investment than a penthouse apartment. If wealth preservation is your goal.

I would say knowing how economics and physics work in the real world gives you insights into dealing with future uncertainty. But nothing in the future is certain! ; - )
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Re: Incongruity of economics and physics

Unread postby mididoctors » Thu 29 Nov 2007, 09:37:19

http://www.energybulletin.net/37822.html

this story I found intriguing.

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', ' ')There is a large and expanding economic literature that seeks to explain why the steep oil price rise since 2003 has not led to a recession. The common conclusion, arrived at by different models and analysis methods, is that the U.S. economy is now mostly immune to oil prices hikes and has been so since the mid-80's. Many peak oil proponents assume a simple model of the relation between oil supply or price shocks and economic performance. Economists have called into question some aspects of that model. Those studying peak oil need to make cogent responses to ensure that their view is taken seriously. It is beyond the scope of this column to do a detailed analysis, but it is possible to lay out some of the current debate and the issues that need to be addressed.


It got me thinking...

what caused the global recession of the 1980's?

was it the price shock of oil rising to over $40/barrel?

the conclusion I have come too is NO

what causes a global recession is not the price of oil but how much you are burning.

the amount of stuff going on..ie things happening in reality is the real economy.

the price can be anything but if we continue burning increasing amounts of stuff (fossil fuels) there is no real recession.

the power consumption is the economy.. the price is some subjective weird breakfast dream-time hobby we are all caught up in.

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Re: Incongruity of economics and physics

Unread postby mididoctors » Thu 29 Nov 2007, 09:55:21

I think I will modify my view in so far as complicating it by the introduction of efficiency.

burning corn ethanol may increase the power consumption but the resultant drop in efficiency (the dreaded boundary condition EROEI problem) will give a false reading on the power meter as it where

peak energy etc.

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Re: Incongruity of economics and physics

Unread postby MrBill » Thu 29 Nov 2007, 10:46:00

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('mididoctors', 'I') think I will modify my view in so far as complicating it by the introduction of efficiency.

burning corn ethanol may increase the power consumption but the resultant drop in efficiency (the dreaded boundary condition EROEI problem) will give a false reading on the power meter as it where

peak energy etc.

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Recent oil price rallies have simply been demand lead versus oi price shocks of the past that were supply induced.

Take a look at these two charts. One is EUR/CNY and the other is the price of WTI. Look at the high degree of correlation. Thanks.

WTI
and
EUR/CNY

I have been seeing a lot of previously uncorrelated assets that now seem to tied to one common theme and that is a weaker US dollar. Cheers.
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Re: Incongruity of economics and physics

Unread postby efarmer » Thu 29 Nov 2007, 11:27:16

I thoroughly enjoy Mr. Bill and Lonesnark since economics is a subject I know precious little about excepting supply and demand and cash is king. During the course of my adult life it seems that the freight train of Wall Street more or less stayed on top of the track of fundamentals. It appears to me now that with hedges, private investments banks, SIVs, and also the plethora of computerized robot transactions, it is a different animal altogether. I see a Wall Street "freight train" now that can leave the tracks temporarily on a whim, jump up vertically from the tracks to snatch a bonus check at year end, and otherwise appear to be "gamed" to a casual observer such as myself. Perhaps the street has always been a trained hound that fetches, speaks, and rolls over and plays dead, who knows. Would you weigh in with experience and logic on my man in the street sort of view?
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Re: Incongruity of economics and physics

Unread postby MrBill » Thu 29 Nov 2007, 12:15:02

Well efarmer, I certainly would not defend Wall Street bonuses or NBA salaries for that matter.

Certainly the game is rigged by the insiders, but also perhaps inadvertently by regulators and lawmakers - under the motto, "you create the rules, and we'll game the system" as there is always the written law, and someone's interpretation of it, versus the spirit of the law, and someone's vested economic interest.

Who knows a company better than its senior management? Often they use financial markets to exit their 'trades' with or without inside help from investment bankers, but certainly there have been enough Enron's and Worldcom's to deny that there can and is temptation for self-enrichment on both sides.

But what about unintended consequences?

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', ' ')RACE OR RISK?

Study after study show that minorities are more likely than whites to get subprime mortgages, which are high-cost loans made to people with poor credit. In its heyday earlier this decade, the subprime market was cheered as an avenue through which historically shut-out borrowers could get loans. That frequently meant minorities.

So long as home prices rose, the subprime market seemed a positive example of how to increase home ownership, but as the housing market weakened this year, many began to question whether the loans were fairly priced.

In September, the Federal Reserve released a study that found 52.8 percent of African-Americans got a high-cost home loan when they refinanced in 2006, compared to 37.7 percent of Latinos and just 25.7 percent of whites in the same year.

Source: Minorities hit hardest by housing crisis

I certainly remember not so long ago that these same activests were putting moral and legal pressure on large banks to open more branches and do more lending in these poorer communities. It was labelled discrimination for not doing more to help minorities better afford housing. Now Mr. Clavon, a 35-year-old executive assistant at a bank, who one might assume is able to understand his actions when it comes to financial matters, is going to lose his home because he is a visible minority, and not because he made a poor financial decision?

Meanwhile lenders have already announced at least $50 billion in loan related losses. Not small beer and their shareprices have been duly punished by shareholders.

Or take Accounting standards that have nothing to do with Wall Street per se. The income statement and the balance sheet tell two totally different things about the health and wealth of a company. But so do archane accounting rules that allow - or actually compell - companies to mark to market trading securities, but the same securities can be left on the balance sheet at their purchase price if they are not tradable securities, but long-term investments. Huh? It allows companies to cherry pick, but whose fault is that? They follow the rules and laws handed down to them. Sometimes to their own benefit naturally.

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', 'L')ook at Freddie's assets and liabilities at their fair values, rather than their GAAP balance-sheet amounts, and Freddie's net assets were just $23.8 billion. That was down from $31.9 billion a quarter earlier. By this measure, almost a third of Freddie's core capital didn't exist in real life.

What gives? The government's definition of core capital, set by federal statute, excludes lots of pent-up losses that have accumulated over the years at the two companies. Known under GAAP as accumulated other comprehensive income, or AOCI, those amounts are excluded from net income and core capital, although they count on companies' balance sheets.

Freddie had $8.8 billion of net losses in AOCI at Sept. 30. That included $4.3 billion of losses on so-called cash-flow hedges, which are derivatives Freddie uses to protect against various risks. It also included $4.4 billion of losses on securities that Freddie classifies as available for sale; those losses would count in earnings and core capital if Freddie classified them as trading securities instead.

Source: Bloomberg, Nov. 28

Economics by the way follows the cash flow principle, and not accounting rules, which somehow bizarrely allow companies to write the value of assets through depreciation even though those assets may be increasing in price. Huh?

Let's just say that that when you start throwing blame around there is enough for everyone. Including voters and citizens who are quite happy to take more out of the system then they pay in with their taxes. Their ill-gotten - or well deserved - gains may not be as large as the headline grabbing bonuses of investment bankers, but those bankers likely pay more taxes over their careers then they collect in benefits.

Meanwhile the US Comptroller General says that the US' unfunded future liabilities make America effectively bankrupt. In other words bigger numbers in aggregate or 'death by a million hand-outs'. Who is listening to the GAO? Where is the outrage, and the call from Congress to finally do something about government deficits? Huh? ; - )
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Re: Incongruity of economics and physics

Unread postby Duende » Thu 29 Nov 2007, 12:24:13

LoneSnark wrote:
$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', 'T')his is why economists nowadays no longer believe oil shocks induce recessions: they tend to be a wash, shifting wealth from consumers to businesses.

Ok, I see the logic of this now I think.

MrBill wrote:
$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', 'A')s LoneSnark mentioned, double the 'available money', but keep 'usable energy' the same and 'all things being equal' the nominal price of usuable energy will double. Not that twice the amount of usable energy will materialise out of nowhere. That is also why money is not a substitute for energy. Again a common mistake.

Ok, I think I'm getting there. In this example, the price increase is nominal. So, if I'm to understand, higher energy prices won't cause a problem economically because they will be reflected nominally in the market; in other words, that extra money going for energy (by consumers and energy-consuming businesses) will be ultimately redistributed into the market by those who gained from its increased price. This is why the economy is now "oil shock proof", right?
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Re: Incongruity of economics and physics

Unread postby whereagles » Thu 29 Nov 2007, 17:09:16

That is basically the point, yes.

However, it is true that expensive oil tends to increase the cash flow poor --> rich. This is one of the reasons the rich/poor gap is increasing.
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Re: Incongruity of economics and physics

Unread postby MrBill » Fri 30 Nov 2007, 05:48:10

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('whereagles', 'T')hat is basically the point, yes.

However, it is true that expensive oil tends to increase the cash flow poor --> rich. This is one of the reasons the rich/poor gap is increasing.


This is true Duende that high energy, metal and commodity prices tend to be somewhat neutral as they are a wealth transfer from consuming nations to producing nations. However, it is not a simple wash.

The gains and losses are asymmetrical. First those paying the high prices in the consuming nation - like low income families - may not be able to afford the higher prices even though on aggregate they may be affordable to businesses that can pass higher prices along to the consumer, or consumers who's incomes also rise in-line with higher prices (i.e. more pricing power).

Secondly, all the gains to those exporting nations may also not be equitably shared either. They may be accruing primarily to a political or economic elite with the bunk of the gains not filtering down to average person's incomes. In this case they may be suffering from high prices due to a robust domestic economy, but may not be participating in the gains.

Typically when a producing nation exports both commodities and capital then the net gains for the domestic economy are even smaller. Jobs, yes, but not the pace of growth as if those export receipts were re-invested into local capital markets.

Thirdly, the gains from free trade tend to assume that the exporter's currency will rise, while the importer's currency will decline. So that exports become net less competitive and imports become net less affordable. Then free trade should be self-righting. However, currency manipulation and capital controls can prevent that automatic mechanism from being effective. Then it breaks down and imblances occur. That is why I often say you should not have unrestricted free trade, unless you also have fair trade.

If someone wants to talk about that point then I am happy to outline my arguments because strictly speaking 'many' economists argue the gains from trade occur with or without fair trade. I disagree, but I am a recent convert to my side of the argument after thinking about it long and hard.

Fourthly, one source of leakage occurs between exporters and importers - or producers and consumers - when country A exports to country B, but then country A imports from country C. Clearly good for A and C, but not so great for country B. This is roughly what is happening when GCC countries export oil to the USA and then buy more imports from the EU than they tend to buy from the USA. That may correct over-time due to exchange rate adjustments, but in the short-term it can exacerbate imbalances, and I think critically it also depends on country B's manufacturing and export mix. They have to produce something that A prefers over C's product offering.

This last point applies expecially to many sub-African countries, for example, that may not be oil exporters like Nigeria or Sudan, but may also be trapped under China Inc. as the world's lowest cost manufacturer. Basically, they pay more for imported energy, metal and commodities, and they have low labor costs so import prices are high in real-terms, but they cannot produce anything anyone wants to buy. This may be do to a lack of expertise, lack of infrastructure, tariff barriers, internal corruption, or any number of factors, but it may also be that China has blocked their way because in order to move into that competitive space with their exports they may be running smack dab into China Inc.'s low-cost exports. This really is the Devil's riddle to solve.

Theoretically, if they are stable, but poor, then they might attract industry due to low labor costs. However, this does not work if they lack infrastructure, or there is widespread corruption that drives up the cost of doing business, and offsets those low salaries. You would not believe it, but some of the most expensive cites in the world to set-up an office - complete with security and backhanders to local officials - are in the poorest countries of Africa. Not exactly a good selling point for them to attract industry. And to rub salt in their wounds, the Chinese who are there tend to bring their own workers to Africa for mining operations, for example, instead of hiring locals. Ouch!

So although high commodity prices are a wealth transfer, and so do not destroy wealth or predict economic slowdowns per se, those gains from trade are not spread evenly in importing and exporting countries or even in third countries that may find themselves excluded from trade, and so unable to benefit properly from higher prices of basic commodities that they might produce. Fair trade matters to millions!
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Re: Incongruity of economics and physics

Unread postby Doly » Fri 30 Nov 2007, 07:03:20

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('MrBill', '
')So although high commodity prices are a wealth transfer, and so do not destroy wealth or predict economic slowdowns per se...


Wait a minute, Mr Bill. I don't agree with this. High commodity prices (relative to everything else) mean that this particular commodity must be getting harder to obtain than everything else (demand and supply at work here). If all, or most commodities are going up, it must mean that raw materials in general are getting harder to obtain (perhaps because we are in the middle of an energy crisis and to obtain most raw materials you need energy). And if many raw materials are getting harder to obtain, I can't see how the economy is not going to slow down.
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Re: Incongruity of economics and physics

Unread postby MrBill » Fri 30 Nov 2007, 07:18:00

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('Doly', '')$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('MrBill', '
')So although high commodity prices are a wealth transfer, and so do not destroy wealth or predict economic slowdowns per se...


Wait a minute, Mr Bill. I don't agree with this. High commodity prices (relative to everything else) mean that this particular commodity must be getting harder to obtain than everything else (demand and supply at work here). If all, or most commodities are going up, it must mean that raw materials in general are getting harder to obtain (perhaps because we are in the middle of an energy crisis and to obtain most raw materials you need energy). And if many raw materials are getting harder to obtain, I can't see how the economy is not going to slow down.



High prices may be a sign of scarcity. That is true. But they may also be a sign of inflation.

I would define high prices due to scarcity as one commodity - energy - getting more expensive relative to other commodities - say natural gas.

I would define high prices due to inflation as all or many commodities simultaneously getting more expensive - not due to scarcity - but to excess money supply creation that is leading to inflation.

They are not mutually exclusive.

However, it still does not change that high prices from producers to consumers are a wealth transfer from consumers to producers. If country A pays $50 per barrel to country B then $50 is transfered. If country A pays $100 per barrel to country B then $100 is transfered. Subject to some friction or slippage in the capital markets.

Now do high prices presage an economic slowdown? Define economic slowdown? If high prices are demand lead by the consuming country then they have enough economic output to justify paying higher prices for their inputs including their imports. Those higher prices are certainly not slowing down the producing nation who is enjoying more export revenue and faster economic growth.

However, if an economy is slowing, say the USA today, and a supply interuption causes crude prices to spike from $90 to $135 per barrel then, no, there is not enough domestic demand to support prices 50% higher than before, so it will likely cause the US economy to decelerate even faster than if crude had only been $90. That is likely because in a slowing economy it will be harder to pass on the energy input component of production and distribution onto the price of the output as the end consumer has less income to spend on all goods and services in a slowing economy.

So it does depend on which part of the business cycle you are in. Especially in the consuming country. But high prices are still a wealth transfer to producers from consumers. $135 crude may well effect the USA more than KSA in 2008! ; - )
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Re: Incongruity of economics and physics

Unread postby whereagles » Fri 30 Nov 2007, 08:20:41

I tend to agree. As long as the taps deliver, it doesn't matter how much it costs. If taps FAIL to deliver, then you'd have slowdown.
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Re: Incongruity of economics and physics

Unread postby LoneSnark » Fri 30 Nov 2007, 11:43:22

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', 'T')hirdly, the gains from free trade tend to assume that the exporter's currency will rise, while the importer's currency will decline. So that exports become net less competitive and imports become net less affordable. Then free trade should be self-righting. However, currency manipulation and capital controls can prevent that automatic mechanism from being effective. Then it breaks down and imbalances occur. That is why I often say you should not have unrestricted free trade, unless you also have fair trade.

I too once believed this; but I do not anymore. Here is why:
To manipulate the currency by keeping your own currency artificially low (talking China here) what you need to do is repeatedly buy dollars off the market using the local Yuan. But where are you getting the Yuan? Most countries just borrow from the central bank, printing Yuan. This is no different than if the government just ran the presses making money and spent it; that they choose to buy dollars with it does not change the behavior. They are inflating the money supply, which will cause high inflation. As the real value of the Yuan falls due to inflation, even with a fixed exchange rate, then U.S. products, still at the old Yuan price, will cost less compared to Chinese products, which cost more and more Yuan. The reverse is also true: inflating prices in China make Chinese products less competitive across the fixed exchange rate.

This is the way the gold standard worked: if a peg was set wrong then inflation would correct the low country and deflation would correct the high country.

The only way this correct could be prevented was if the Chinese government did not create the Yuan to buy dollars but instead borrowed it from Chinese citizens. But then what we have is the Chinese government borrowing from its own people at 8% and loaning it to the United States government at 3.9%. It will take longer, but eventually the Chinese government will go broke and the peg will be broken.

The Chinese government could collect the Yuan as taxes.

Can you think of another way to enforce a peg than these three? It seems to me from looking at these three options there is no downside to the United States from China's behavior. We get low interest rates and cheap goods while the Chinese lose a crap-load of value.
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Re: Incongruity of economics and physics

Unread postby MrBill » Fri 30 Nov 2007, 12:23:57

LoneSnark wrote:
$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', 'C')an you think of another way to enforce a peg than these three? It seems to me from looking at these three options there is no downside to the United States from China's behavior. We get low interest rates and cheap goods while the Chinese lose a crap-load of value.


From a macro-economic respect I suspect you are correct. But I can find one holistic argument against such gains from trade.

This is a variation on the race to the bottom argument used by free trades opponents.

Say the USA and China both produce something similiar in quality. I do not want to name a good because then someone might say it is unrealistic, but let us say, software. It is hard to produce and easy to copy. It is emblematic of the 'we think, they work' mentality of free traders.

Okay, so Office Ultimate 2007 costs between $679/$539, but China knocks it off for much less. Some would argue this is because $539 to $679 is too expensive for China to afford?

Well, let us also suppose that $539 supplies the $100.000 income for an American to have a decent life, including paying for his home, his car, his family's healthcare, paying his taxes and saving for his retirement. That would be good.

What if an imported good could provide the same benefit to a US consumer, but at only $539/2 = $230. Clearly this is an attractive price for the consumer. But what if it destroys the US worker's job for $100.000, so he no longer has the income to support a decent life for him and his family.

From a purely economical perspective that is fine 'because he can now find a job that pays more than $100.000' even though the person who replaced him makes substantially less, and their income may not cover a decent life, including paying for his home, his car, his family's healthcare, paying his taxes and saving for his retirement. In otherwords those costs are external. They are not included in the cost of the software.

I would maintain it is almost impossible to have free trade between countries without fair trade. It may not become a race to the bottom in the traditional sense, but clearly the playing field is not level. You do not sacrafice 'good paying jobs with benefits' if the only reason the other person's offering is because they do not offer 'good paying jobs with benefits'.

Sorry I am a little tired and have a cold. If that is not clear or you disagree then I would prefer to come back to you later? Thanks. Have a nice weekend.
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Re: Incongruity of economics and physics

Unread postby LoneSnark » Sat 01 Dec 2007, 12:28:46

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', 'F')rom a purely economical perspective that is fine 'because he can now find a job that pays more than $100.000' even though the person who replaced him makes substantially less, and their income may not cover a decent life, including paying for his home, his car, his family's healthcare, paying his taxes and saving for his retirement. In otherwords those costs are external. They are not included in the cost of the software.

one nitpick: if there was a job available that paid more than $100k the individual in question would have most likely already taken it.

Which is a very good point from the replacement workers perspective: if the trade did not occur, then this individual would never have received this job offer making Chinese Office 2007 for sale in the United States. He would have been forced to accept whatever job offer it was he rejected to make Chinese Office 2007 instead, which presumably paid less, since if it paid more we can be sure he would have taken that job instead.

So, by preventing the trade, you are helping the American make $100k a year instead of 99k a year (his next best offer). But you are also hurting the Chinese programmer, which instead of making $50k a year (since the software sells for half I just halved it) will only make 49k a year (his next best offer). In the grand scheme of things, by preventing the trade you would have made the poor poorer and the rich richer.
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Re: Incongruity of economics and physics

Unread postby MrBill » Sun 02 Dec 2007, 10:33:00

I do not have time to react fully today, but, no, I would reject the view that one job is better than the next, say in USA vs. China. However, I would suggest that 'some' jobs are better than others if they come with benefits for the worker that disappear when these jobs are then offshored.

Also, consider the company that invests in R&D that is then undersold by firms that make either generics or fakes. Ultimately, this is a race to the bottom as you have parasitic firms living off the past R&D expenditures of other firms while simultaneously discouraging these firms from investing R&D in the future. This reduces the incentive to innovate. In which case the one off gains to consumers of lower prices are just that - one off.
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