by smallpoxgirl » Fri 22 Sep 2006, 13:15:52
$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('PenultimateManStanding', ' ')Here's the question: if the current owner has until Oct 3 to vacate, why is the landlord giving the key to the old owner and is that legal?
You're using the words "owner" and "landlord" in a way that's a bit confusing. By "owner" I think you mean owner of the business, not the building. In terms of the building, if I understand correctly, they are tenants.
I'm not a lawyer, so take my opinion w/ a grain of salt. Most states have statutes defining the conditions under which landlords are allowed to enter rental property and when they are allowed to reposes a property. Basically the only way they are allowed to forcibly remove a legitimate tenant that doesn't want to leave is by getting the sheriff to enforce a "writ of possession" from a court. The process is usually that they are required to serve the tenant with a notice to "make repairs or quit", i.e. pay up by a certain date or get out of the building. If the tenant doesn't respond, then the landlord has to file a motion in court and there is a hearing and the judge has to issue a writ of possession. The landlord then takes the writ of possession to the sheriff who can force the tenant out.
So yeah. I would say that unless the current tenants vacated willingly, then the landlord is probably violating California law by handing the premesis over to a different party. In most states it would be a fairly easy matter to pull up the relevant statute, but California's legal code runs something like 10,000 pages and isn't easily accesible online.