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THE Fractional Banking Thread (merged)

Discussions about the economic and financial ramifications of PEAK OIL

Re: fractional banking and the gdp

Unread postby bdmarti » Fri 19 May 2006, 12:28:46

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('Peak_Plus', '
')1) Light Inflation is NOT bad. Money is there to be used, invested. Not to be put under a pillow or pay a bank to "hold" it.


This looks like an unsubstantiated opinion to me.
Who are you to say when or how money is to be used?

If I want to work double shifts this week so that I can take next week off, all I should need to do is put my money under my pillow until next week.
If instead inflation will rob me of half the value of my money by next week, then it's not possible for me to take next week off even though I've done EXACTLY the same amount of work that I would accomplish working next week.
Why is it wrong that money simply acts as a store of vlaue? Why is it wrong to assume that I can buy $1 worth of goods tommorow with the $1 worth of work I did today?


$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', '
')2) Deflation (here: rising demand for money while money supply remains constant) is much worse than "high" inflation (10-20%)


As an assertion that I again think ithis is wrong. If you happen to have more money than debt during deflation, then your money gains value, and you are better off Thus for those who have cash, deflation better than inflation.

Now, granted, we exist in an economy where few people have cash assets that can offest their debts, but this is also a result of the fiat currency and FRB system that we live in. It obviously doesn't make sence to hold cash when you KNOW that it will lose value over time.

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', '
')3) The gold standard is nonsense, because it can't be expanded to meet expanding needs (population, technology)


just one more unsubstantiated assertion?

Did the gold standard support the roman empire at it's peak?
How about the spanish empire? The english? How about the US prior to the federal reserve? How about most of the industrial world prior to the 1940's?
Did we not change in technology between the roman empire and the early 1900s or even the 1940s? Wasn't the population a bit bigger in the British Empire than in the Roman empire thousands of years previously?
How can it be that a system of money that doesn't meet expanding needs could be used in later generations by populations several orders of magnitude larger?

And how could one think that technology is somehow a problem with the gold standard? The ability to have up to the second prices for gold or silver and being able to buy anbd sell these things globally at a moments notice goes a long way to solving many of the problems often associated with the gold standard.
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Re: fractional banking and the gdp

Unread postby CrudeAwakening » Tue 23 May 2006, 06:30:26

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('Peak_Plus', '')$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('CrudeAwakening', '
')You do have use of your $10. You can write a cheque on it, and buy goods/services. The bank will honour your cheque because you have $10 in your deposit account. At the same time, it will honour a cheque written by whoever borrowed the $9 which was enabled by your deposit.

...And then, if the bank's balance is in the red (in this case -$9) at the end of the day, it has to borrow from another bank to make up the difference.

Or can it leave the $9 borrowed AND leave your account at $0?

Yes, the bank uses its reserves to meet depositor's withdrawals, and yes a FRB can't create reserves from nothing, and yes it can borrow reserves if it is deficient, but this doesn't alter the fact that credit-money was created at the point the loan was taken out. Once created, this is only destroyed on repayment of loan prinicipal. As DJ Mittens pointed out, if you can't follow the accounting, you won't "get it".
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Re: fractional banking and the gdp

Unread postby MrBill » Tue 23 May 2006, 07:48:48

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('CrudeAwakening', '')$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('Peak_Plus', '')$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('CrudeAwakening', '
')You do have use of your $10. You can write a cheque on it, and buy goods/services. The bank will honour your cheque because you have $10 in your deposit account. At the same time, it will honour a cheque written by whoever borrowed the $9 which was enabled by your deposit.

...And then, if the bank's balance is in the red (in this case -$9) at the end of the day, it has to borrow from another bank to make up the difference.

Or can it leave the $9 borrowed AND leave your account at $0?

Yes, the bank uses its reserves to meet depositor's withdrawals, and yes a FRB can't create reserves from nothing, and yes it can borrow reserves if it is deficient, but this doesn't alter the fact that credit-money was created at the point the loan was taken out. Once created, this is only destroyed on repayment of loan prinicipal. As DJ Mittens pointed out, if you can't follow the accounting, you won't "get it".


So if Big Bank issues a credit card to Joe Consumption with a $10.000 credit limit has Big Bank increased either the money in circulation or money supply or just credit which is a fancy word for IOUs? If Joe buys a TV maybe the Big Bank can get back pennies on their dollars, but if Joe blows it on consumables, Big Bank and Big Bank's shareholders, plus any credit card receivables they flogged-off on Investor Jane are just plain out of luck, if Joe does not pay that IOU back. Credit is not money supply.
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Re: fractional banking and the gdp

Unread postby DJ_Mittens » Tue 23 May 2006, 12:14:36

Having a line of credit is meaningless.

Using a line of credit, however, does increase the money supply. We'll assume the person will pay back their loan, and not declare bankruptcy (which, in fact, would increase the money supply even more).

If that person pays back the loan, and the interest, there is a net decrease in money supply, because not only is the principle out of circulation when it once was, but now so is the interest paid. So to keep the supply increasing, either the government prints more, or the banks create even more credit availability or give out even more loans.
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Re: fractional banking and the gdp

Unread postby MrBill » Wed 24 May 2006, 02:56:04

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('DJ_Mittens', 'H')aving a line of credit is meaningless.

Using a line of credit, however, does increase the money supply. We'll assume the person will pay back their loan, and not declare bankruptcy (which, in fact, would increase the money supply even more).

If that person pays back the loan, and the interest, there is a net decrease in money supply, because not only is the principle out of circulation when it once was, but now so is the interest paid. So to keep the supply increasing, either the government prints more, or the banks create even more credit availability or give out even more loans.


If I give you a credit card with a line of credit of $10.000, and you do not use it, then it is a piece of plastic with potential versus kinetic energy.

If you use that line of credit, money supply is not affected. Why? Because as you use the credit card, making a promise to me to repay that personal loan, I pay the vendor upfront for the goods & serviced you buy with my own savings. If I am a bank, I use liabilities that I have incurred, in the form of on demand site deposits from customers to make those payments. If I do not have enough deposits, I sell some of my assets, in the form of securitized credit card receipts, to investors who use their savings to buy those ABSs.

Money supply has not contracted or expanded. Assets and equity have been converted into liabilities. Or more simply, savings into borrowings.

The vendor got his money in any case. If you pay the credit card loan back then I get my original loan back, plus any interest, less any discount from selling my credit card receipts. If I sold credit card receipts, the investors got their principle back, which they had bought at a discount. That discount represents their interest on their principle investment. The interest income that we earned collectively has to come from your savings. If not from your savings than from your future earnings.

The only growth came from you buying a good or a service that had to be produced and then paid for. That created economic growth. Increased GDP. If money supply only increases in line with GDP growth, it is not inflationary.

If there is money supply growth in excess of real GDP growth, it is because the central bank is following an expansionary monetary policy, and it has nothing to do with me giving you a credit card to use or not to use as the case may be.

Credit growth is not money supply growth. Credit growth is converting the present value of savings now into a stream of future income payments later.
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Re: fractional banking and the gdp

Unread postby CrudeAwakening » Wed 24 May 2006, 05:50:04

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('MrBill', 'S')o if Big Bank issues a credit card to Joe Consumption with a $10.000 credit limit has Big Bank increased either the money in circulation or money supply or just credit which is a fancy word for IOUs? If Joe buys a TV maybe the Big Bank can get back pennies on their dollars, but if Joe blows it on consumables, Big Bank and Big Bank's shareholders, plus any credit card receivables they flogged-off on Investor Jane are just plain out of luck, if Joe does not pay that IOU back. Credit is not money supply.

True, you can have credit creation without increasing the money supply, as when you borrow from a friend. But when a bank creates credit by loaning money, it increases the money supply (in the broader M1 sense) by creating bank deposits.

Any process of credit creation that involves a net increase in bank deposits, also increases the money supply, by definition.
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Re: fractional banking and the gdp

Unread postby CrudeAwakening » Wed 24 May 2006, 06:06:05

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('MrBill', ' ')If I am a bank, I use liabilities that I have incurred, in the form of on demand site deposits from customers to make those payments.

Interesting. So when I make a payment with a credit card, a bank customer has their deposit balance reduced? If not, then (M1)money has been created, because on paying the merchant, the merchant's bank deposits increase while nobody else's decreases.
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Re: fractional banking and the gdp

Unread postby MrBill » Wed 24 May 2006, 06:15:37

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('CrudeAwakening', '')$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('MrBill', 'S')o if Big Bank issues a credit card to Joe Consumption with a $10.000 credit limit has Big Bank increased either the money in circulation or money supply or just credit which is a fancy word for IOUs? If Joe buys a TV maybe the Big Bank can get back pennies on their dollars, but if Joe blows it on consumables, Big Bank and Big Bank's shareholders, plus any credit card receivables they flogged-off on Investor Jane are just plain out of luck, if Joe does not pay that IOU back. Credit is not money supply.

True, you can have credit creation without increasing the money supply, as when you borrow from a friend. But when a bank creates credit by loaning money, it increases the money supply (in the broader M1 sense) by creating bank deposits.

Any process of credit creation that involves a net increase in bank deposits, also increases the money supply, by definition.


Banks can only attract deposits, which are existing savings, not create them. If they have insufficient liquidity they must borrow from the interbank market, which are other people's savings entrusted to another bank; or sell assets of their own, which may be a portfolio of syndicated loans; but they cannot create deposits. Of course, you may argue that they can borrow from the lender of last resort, the central bank, but then gets back to the central bank printing money, not the banks creating it.

The problem that we have experienced has been low interest rates by central bankers in the face of benign inflation which has inflated asset bubbles around the globe in various assets. There has been too much liquidity and not enough good investments to invest in, so that liquidity has found its way into housing prices, junk bonds, commodities and emerging markets.

And not just in America, but as other central banks tried to keep their interest rates low to curb inflows of capital into their domestic economies, and to try to keep their currencies undervalued to protect their competitive advantage. Now as a result of that artificial growth from too much monetary stimulus, we are starting to see inflation rates going up, which will trigger interest rate hikes, a removal of that stimulus, and therefore slower growth, plus perhaps recessions as those asset bubbles deflate.

This is a pretty good article by Steven Roach at Morgan Stanley explaining how central banks failed to address money supply growth, while concentrating only on inflation and therefore created these asset bubbles and contributed to global imbalances.
$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', 'I')nflation may well have been conquered — a conclusion financial markets are actively debating again — but that was yesterday’s battle. Over the past six years, monetary authorities have turned the liquidity spigot wide open. This has given rise to an endless string of asset bubbles — from equities to bonds to property to risky assets (emerging markets and high-yield credit) to commodities. Central banks have ducked responsibility for this state of affairs. That could end up being a policy blunder of monumental proportions. A new approach to monetary policy is urgently needed.
Global: Wake-Up Call for Central Banking
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Re: fractional banking and the gdp

Unread postby CrudeAwakening » Wed 24 May 2006, 06:44:41

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('MrBill', '
')Banks can only attract deposits, which are existing savings, not create them. If they have insufficient liquidity they must borrow from the interbank market, which are other people's savings entrusted to another bank; or sell assets of their own, which may be a portfolio of syndicated loans; but they cannot create deposits .

FR Banks can and do create deposits, whenever they make a loan. However, they have no say in which bank(s) those new deposits end up in.

Example to clarify: I deposit $1000 with Bank A. Let's say this allows Bank A to lend $900 to X. X then buys something from Y for $900, who deposits the cheque with Bank B.

Result: Bank deposits have increased by $900 (within the banking system as a whole, but not at Bank A).
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Re: fractional banking and the gdp

Unread postby CrudeAwakening » Wed 24 May 2006, 06:50:07

Interesting article, MrBill. Thanks for the link.
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Re: fractional banking and the gdp

Unread postby MrBill » Wed 24 May 2006, 08:09:57

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('CrudeAwakening', '')$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('MrBill', '
')Banks can only attract deposits, which are existing savings, not create them. If they have insufficient liquidity they must borrow from the interbank market, which are other people's savings entrusted to another bank; or sell assets of their own, which may be a portfolio of syndicated loans; but they cannot create deposits .

FR Banks can and do create deposits, whenever they make a loan. However, they have no say in which bank(s) those new deposits end up in.

Example to clarify: I deposit $1000 with Bank A. Let's say this allows Bank A to lend $900 to X. X then buys something from Y for $900, who deposits the cheque with Bank B.

Result: Bank deposits have increased by $900 (within the banking system as a whole, but not at Bank A).


$1000 asset owed to CrudeAwakening
$1000 liability for Bank A

$900 asset for Bank A
$900 liability for Customer X

$900 asset for Vendor Y
$900 liability for Bank B

Bank A is paying interest on $1000, and receiving interest on $900
Bank B is paying interest on $900
Customer X is paying interest on $900
Vendor Y is earning interest on $900


All have been financed from CrudeAwakenings original $1000 in savings. I do not see any money being created?
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Re: fractional banking and the gdp

Unread postby Peak_Plus » Wed 24 May 2006, 09:32:54

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('CrudeAwakening', '')$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('MrBill', '
')Banks can only attract deposits, which are existing savings, not create them. If they have insufficient liquidity they must borrow from the interbank market, which are other people's savings entrusted to another bank; or sell assets of their own, which may be a portfolio of syndicated loans; but they cannot create deposits .

FR Banks can and do create deposits...

Example to clarify ...

And then the discussion turns full circle.
Now Deconstructionist can repeat what he said, etc..

Thanks, Bill, for taking up my argument. I can't write as proliferant as you. Besides, even on my stay at home vacation I don't have enough time to keep the argument going. As if that were the point of this all.

How are things going in Cyprus?

After reading everything about the anti-FRB fraction, I THINK I understand the problem. It has *nothing* to do with lending and borrowing. It has *nothing* to do with savings and credit.

The problem is...
Joe puts $10,000 in a CHECKING account.
That is a *demand deposit*, not a savings account. Joe is allowed to take it out/ write a check at any moment - and it HAS to be honored.
Instead of keeping the deposit in reserve, the bank lends it out again - almost to 100%. Very risky.

The anti-FRB fraction wants to complain about this by ripping on the accounting practices behind it.
Me and you, Bill, would complain about the lender of last resort and about centrally guided increasing money supply above growing GNP.

They obviously can't keep the two things separate. Don't argue. It won't help.

BTW, according to this definition, a credit line is also a "demand credit" and must be put on the liabilities side of the accounting sheet. That's only being consistent, don't you think?
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Re: fractional banking and the gdp

Unread postby MrBill » Wed 24 May 2006, 10:24:13

Well, I certainly see the fractional lending side of it. The original deposit gets lent out again. The money multiplier effect. Of course, the reverse happens when Depositer A takes his money out of the bank. Either the bank(s) have to find another source of primary funds or they have to borrow it from the central bank. If the central bank is running an expansionary policy, blowing up bubbles, then we all know what they are going to do? Keep printing and keep lending. Hence borrowing money you do not have to buy things you do not need which results in trade and current account deficits!

Fortunately for me, I type very fast. Unfortunately for you, sometimes I tend to write too much! ; - )
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Re: fractional banking and the gdp

Unread postby CrudeAwakening » Wed 24 May 2006, 21:39:57

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('MrBill', '
')
$1000 asset owed to CrudeAwakening
$1000 liability for Bank A

$900 asset for Bank A
$900 liability for Customer X

$900 asset for Vendor Y
$900 liability for Bank B

Bank A is paying interest on $1000, and receiving interest on $900
Bank B is paying interest on $900
Customer X is paying interest on $900
Vendor Y is earning interest on $900


All have been financed from CrudeAwakenings original $1000 in savings. I do not see any money being created?

To see the creation of money, simply compare total bank deposits before and after the loan transaction.

I deposit my money: Bank A owes me $1000.
Customer X borrows:Customer X owes bank A $900.
Vendor Y deposits: Bank B owes Vendor Y $900.
Before the loan, bank deposits were made up of my $1000 deposit.
After the loan, bank deposits amounted to $1900; therefore $900 of new deposits.

Demand deposit liabilities of the banks are considered part of the money supply, M1. These have increased by $900 as a result of the loan. Has anything occurred to offset this increase in M1? No. Customer X's liability to Bank A can't be considered a decrement in the money supply.

This process is quite different from a simple credit transaction, where I withdraw $900 from my account to lend to Person X (thus reducing my deposit balance by $900 and increasing his by $900), and he later repays me (with the opposite changes occurring, ignoring interest paid). In this situation total bank deposits remain unchanged, there is simply a transfer of deposits from me to X.

When X borrows from the bank, however, a new deposit is created, ending up in Vendor Y's account.

I feel like I'm belabouring the point a bit - it's a well recognised fact that FRBs create new bank deposits via the multiplier effect, and these deposits add to the money supply, M1. This is the essence of FR banking - an initial injection of reserves by the Fed is expanded into a greater amount of bank deposits (in parallel with debt) by the loan process. These additional deposits are only fractionally backed by bank reserves; depositor's withdrawals are met by use of these reserves, so not all depositors can withdraw their money at the same time.

Of course, to blame FRBs for increasing the money supply irresponsibly is missing the point - they are only doing what they are institutionally mandated to do. It is quite correct to point the finger at the central bank - but to claim that FRBs play no role in increasing the money supply is wrong.
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Re: fractional banking and the gdp

Unread postby DJ_Mittens » Wed 24 May 2006, 22:01:48

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('MrBill', '')$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('CrudeAwakening', '')$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('MrBill', '
')Banks can only attract deposits, which are existing savings, not create them. If they have insufficient liquidity they must borrow from the interbank market, which are other people's savings entrusted to another bank; or sell assets of their own, which may be a portfolio of syndicated loans; but they cannot create deposits .

FR Banks can and do create deposits, whenever they make a loan. However, they have no say in which bank(s) those new deposits end up in.

Example to clarify: I deposit $1000 with Bank A. Let's say this allows Bank A to lend $900 to X. X then buys something from Y for $900, who deposits the cheque with Bank B.

Result: Bank deposits have increased by $900 (within the banking system as a whole, but not at Bank A).


$1000 asset owed to CrudeAwakening
$1000 liability for Bank A

$900 asset for Bank A
$900 liability for Customer X

$900 asset for Vendor Y
$900 liability for Bank B

Bank A is paying interest on $1000, and receiving interest on $900
Bank B is paying interest on $900
Customer X is paying interest on $900
Vendor Y is earning interest on $900


All have been financed from CrudeAwakenings original $1000 in savings. I do not see any money being created?


Uh, yeah. Real quick. Vendor Y has claims to their $900 at any time, and CrudeAwakening still has claims to his $1000. If money wasn't created, they would both have claims to the same money, which they don't.
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Re: fractional banking and the gdp

Unread postby MrBill » Thu 25 May 2006, 02:52:03

CrudeAwakening wrote$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', 'T')o see the creation of money, simply compare total bank deposits before and after the loan transaction.

I deposit my money: Bank A owes me $1000.
Customer X borrows:Customer X owes bank A $900.
Vendor Y deposits: Bank B owes Vendor Y $900.
Before the loan, bank deposits were made up of my $1000 deposit.
After the loan, bank deposits amounted to $1900; therefore $900 of new deposits.

Demand deposit liabilities of the banks are considered part of the money supply, M1. These have increased by $900 as a result of the loan. Has anything occurred to offset this increase in M1? No. Customer X's liability to Bank A can't be considered a decrement in the money supply.

This process is quite different from a simple credit transaction, where I withdraw $900 from my account to lend to Person X (thus reducing my deposit balance by $900 and increasing his by $900), and he later repays me (with the opposite changes occurring, ignoring interest paid). In this situation total bank deposits remain unchanged, there is simply a transfer of deposits from me to X.

When X borrows from the bank, however, a new deposit is created, ending up in Vendor Y's account.

I feel like I'm belabouring the point a bit - it's a well recognised fact that FRBs create new bank deposits via the multiplier effect, and these deposits add to the money supply, M1. This is the essence of FR banking - an initial injection of reserves by the Fed is expanded into a greater amount of bank deposits (in parallel with debt) by the loan process. These additional deposits are only fractionally backed by bank reserves; depositor's withdrawals are met by use of these reserves, so not all depositors can withdraw their money at the same time.

Of course, to blame FRBs for increasing the money supply irresponsibly is missing the point - they are only doing what they are institutionally mandated to do. It is quite correct to point the finger at the central bank - but to claim that FRBs play no role in increasing the money supply is wrong.


Okay, I get your point on all accounts. Thanks. So then it comes down to managing money supply using a) printing of new notes, and b) doing either repos or reverse repos to drain or add liquidity, knowing that the multiplier effect of fractional banking exists. It would be highly inflationary to print a dollar for every dollar transaction in the economy, so money supply has to be some fraction of the total amount needed to run the economy, but not overheat it. That is a balancing act for the central bank. Obviously, if they take their job seriously, the more fiscal stimulus the government gives, the more restrictive monetary policy has to be.

I think the central bank has done a good job of targeting inflation, but a poor job of managing liquidity with the end result of many assets bubbles distorting the economy which were painless to inflate, but will not be so easy to deflate without causing problems for the real economy. Also, as others have pointed out, this has eroded the savings of those who chose not to partake in the asset bubble frenzy! ; - )
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Re: fractional banking and the gdp

Unread postby Doly » Thu 25 May 2006, 04:48:04

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('MrBill', '
')This is a pretty good article by Steven Roach at Morgan Stanley explaining how central banks failed to address money supply growth, while concentrating only on inflation and therefore created these asset bubbles and contributed to global imbalances.


I don't really understand here. Isn't inflation tied to money supply? I mean, how can you have inflation under control and money supply growth not be right?
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Re: fractional banking and the gdp

Unread postby CrudeAwakening » Thu 25 May 2006, 05:15:25

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('MrBill', 'I') think the central bank has done a good job of targeting inflation, but a poor job of managing liquidity with the end result of many assets bubbles distorting the economy which were painless to inflate, but will not be so easy to deflate without causing problems for the real economy. Also, as others have pointed out, this has eroded the savings of those who chose not to partake in the asset bubble frenzy! ; - )

Yeah, I agree. The great thing about asset bubbles from the central bank's POV is they provide an outlet for inflation, and make people feel wealthy at the same time. A kind of "have their cake and eat it too" situation. But it's going to bite them (and everyone else) in the bum at some stage. :) (or should that be :()
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Re: fractional banking and the gdp

Unread postby MrBill » Thu 25 May 2006, 05:19:42

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('Doly', '')$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('MrBill', '
')This is a pretty good article by Steven Roach at Morgan Stanley explaining how central banks failed to address money supply growth, while concentrating only on inflation and therefore created these asset bubbles and contributed to global imbalances.


I don't really understand here. Isn't inflation tied to money supply? I mean, how can you have inflation under control and money supply growth not be right?


Traditional inflation measures the cost of consumables or goods. It does not measure asset prices. For example, too much global liquidity might end up in over capacity at steel factories in China. China instead of being an importer of steel and competing for imports (inflationary) may become a net exporter and start flooding world markets with cheap steel to cover their variable costs, but not their fixed costs to the benefit of other steel users (deflationary).

However, that same liquidity may also find its way into housing bubbles, golf course, property development, junk bonds and other emerging markets who may not be able to invest that extra liquidity wisely or worse may enter into projects because the cost of money is low (low interest rates) that they would have shunned had the cost of money truly reflected local conditions and risks.

The problem was compounded as foreign central banks competed to keep their interest rates lower than US interest rates, not because local conditions warranted it, but because they did not want US dollars flowing into their economies and driving up the value of their local currency and eroding their export competitiveness.

Of course, due to artificial demand due to below neutral interest rates, now we are seeing inflationary pressures, so interest rates have to rise to contain them. That means lower growth and higher interest rates at the same time. So the two are tied, but there is a timing issue. But also a local and a global component between inflation targeting and money supply growth. Focus too much on one and you lose sight of the implications on the other as Mr. Greenspan did time and again despite his big brain and obvious intelligence! ; - )
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Re: fractional banking and the gdp

Unread postby CARVER » Thu 25 May 2006, 06:50:48

If we look at the equation of exchange: M * V = P * Q , then does it matter whether we see what the banks are doing as (temporarily) creating additional (credit) money supply, or as increasing the velocity of (high powered) money?
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