[advancedatheist]

The Peak Oil argument assumes that because each of a finite number of oil fields on the planet peaks and then permanently declines, therefore the total world oil supply will peak and then permanently decline.

Does this argument commit the Fallacy of Composition?

[Zardoz]

No, it does not. Not applicable in this case.

[Ancien_Opus]

This Fallacy of Composition is not a factor in play, because the world is finite and the composition of a finite world is the sum of its parts. Oil geology is but one of its parts. This is not extrapolation with a tiny data set and subject to the fallacy of composition.

Hubbert technique has proven valid in the US lower 48, North Sea and Prudoe Bay, despite contrarian views from industry experts. It becomes quite accurate at predictive capablility around the 50% QT point. At the 50% QT point it becomes more interpolative instead of
extrapolative in its basic structure. In simple terms, it takes some huge
data points exceptions to shift the averages in any meaningful direction.

Thus as Caesar said, "The die is cast."

[oli]

The fallacy of composition applies when the sum of the parts do not compose the whole.

Or in other words, when externalities, either from the base outset or potentially, significantly alter the whole.

Given a finite world, and finite supplies of fossile fuels extractable and convertable at low cost (EROEI), the fallacy of composition applies if and only if one looks at oil only.

This with the sole qualifier of natural gas. However, given how the extraction of natural gas in many fields is intrinsically linked to the extraction of oil, the conclusion that the term "oil" encompasses "oil and gas" quickly ensues.

Hence, the answer is no.