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THE Petrodollar Thread (merged)

Discussions about the economic and financial ramifications of PEAK OIL

Re: Exactly how does the PetroDollar boost the US$

Postby Daryl » Mon 06 Feb 2006, 09:48:06

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('Scion', ' ')In USA without big militarycomplex there would not be
current level R&D paid by the taxpayers, would it ?

Or can you as American please then explain to me
why has the infrastucture repairs (preservation of capital)
and efficiency improvements neglected for decades ?



So you wouldn't be sitting in a Gulag.
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Re: Exactly how does the PetroDollar boost the US$

Postby MrBill » Mon 06 Feb 2006, 11:46:54

Finland is an excellent example of a small country with a traditional, resource based economy who has successfully made some drastic changes. Good for them. Here is another story about Norway.


$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', 'O')SLO/HELSINKI (Reuters) - Shipbuilder Aker Yards has won the biggest ever commercial ship order, clinching a 900 million euros ($1.1 billion) order from U.S.-Norwegian Royal Caribbean Cruises (RCL.OL: Quote, Profile, Research) for a huge new cruise ship, it said on Monday.

Aker Yards wins world's biggest cruise ship order

And, note to all anti-globalists, I can sympathize with some of your arguments, but look no race to the bottom, they are doing the proposed work in Norway.

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', 'R')oyal Caribbean, the world's second biggest cruise company after U.S. Carnival (CCL.N: Quote, Profile, Research), said it estimated the total cost of the ship to be about $230,000 per berth, roughly comparable to other large cruise vessels despite significant enhancements.

Aker Yards, which has 13 yards in Norway, Finland, Germany, Romania and Brazil, has built a total of 17 new ships for Royal Caribbean since it delivered the cruise ship "Song of Norway" in 1970.


Linear predictions usually do not pan out in the long-term due to regression to the mean, game theory and the ability of companies or economies to change their behavior in response to changing conditions. Of course, small country, smaller problems. Big country, bigger problems.
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Petrodollars heighten risk from global imbalances: IMF

Postby LadyRuby » Fri 14 Apr 2006, 09:22:16

Petrodollars heighten risk from global imbalances: IMF report

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', 'P')etrodollars have returned to the world stage, and could play a potentially destabilizing role in the U.S. and global trade imbalances, according to a new report from the International Monetary Fund released Thursday.

...

In the 1970s, these funds were deposited in big Western banks. This time around, it is more complicated. Petrodollars are being recycled through international capital markets and offshore accounts, partially because of the post 9/11 Patriot Act reporting requirements, the IMF said.

But these investments have kept U.S. interest rates low, allowing the U.S. trade imbalance to persist, because there has been no pain from running large trade deficits.

This only adding to the risk of an eventual sharp drop in the dollar, a spike in U.S. interest rates, and a recession, according to the IMF report. The report was one of the chapters of the IMF's World Economic Outlook released Thursday.

"Global current account imbalances are likely to remain at elevated levels for longer than would otherwise have been the case, heightening the risk of a sudden disorderly adjustment," the IMF said in the report, the World Economic Outlook.

And the U.S. has not had to adjust as much as it did in the past because inflation has remained subdued in face of high oil prices and petrodollars have kept interest rates low.

...

The IMF said that much of the $30 per barrel increase in oil prices since 2002 is likely to be permanent. ...

The higher fuel bill has accounted for one-half of the deterioration in the U.S. current account deficit over the last two years, the agency estimated.

...
The IMF said that oil-exporting countries should boost spending in education and infrastructure projects to have a permanent positive effect on their living standards. This would lower the surpluses.
Oil consuming countries should not shield their citizens from paying the world oil prices, which would reduce oil consumption.
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Re: Petrodollars heighten risk from global imbalances: IMF

Postby ubercynicmeister » Fri 14 Apr 2006, 22:39:08

That's IMF talk for "Oh My God We're Facing A Complete Petrodollar Collapse"

Yeah, ho hum. IMF, please tell us something we don't know.

The OTHER bit they don't talk about is those deposits in the hedge funds since the 1970's. Wanna know where they came from? That's right: the first Oil Shock, in the early 1970's.
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Petrodollars - is this how it works?

Postby SoothSayer » Tue 25 Apr 2006, 03:58:02

I find this whole petrodollar concept tricky. Does it work like this?

1. The world some years back decided that all oil sales from producing countries MUST be paid for in in US dollars.

2. An oil producing country "creates" a barrel of oil out of the ground.

3. The producer agrees to sell this "new" barrel of oil for, say, $70 to say, Germany.

4. Germany needs to find the $70 ... so it sells some goods, services or other currency to the USA.

5. The USA prints $70 in banknotes and passes them to Germany.

6. Germany passes the $70 to the producer, and gets the barrel of oil in return.


7. The net result is:

a: Germany directly or indirectly provides $70 of goods or services or foreign currency to the USA in order to obtain 70 US dollars.

b: Germany then sends the $70 to the producer.

c: The producer gets $70 for a barrel of black gunk God left in their back yard.

d: The USA gets $70 worth of goods or services or foreign currency - simply for printing $70 worth of banknotes.

e: The new $70 get a life of their own, wandering around the world being used to purchase oil from the producers or being used in general trade.

f: The USA can keep printing new dollar notes because more and more "new" oil is being created and needs paying for.

I am however confused about a few points:

1. If the USA did NOT print new dollars, would the world run out of dollars to pay for the never ending (?) supply of oil ... or would the value of each dollar simply increase due to the shortage? If this is the case, why print new dollars?

2. If each new barrel of oil adds say $70 to the world, does this devalue the dollar? (The oil is burned or otherwise disappears, so the value is gone ... but the $70 are still floating around)

3. What proportion of the $70 actually returns to the USA, requiring the US to actually make or do something?

4. It seems that the oil is paid for TWICE ... once to the producer, and once again as a "tax" to the USA. Considering the sums involved, this means that the world is essentially working hard to keep the oil producers and the USA in a comfortable life style. This can't be a correct analysis can it?
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Re: Petrodollars - is this how it works?

Postby MrBill » Tue 25 Apr 2006, 04:47:25

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('SoothSayer', 'I') find this whole petrodollar concept tricky. Does it work like this?

1
I am however confused about a few points:

1. If the USA did NOT print new dollars, would the world run out of dollars to pay for the never ending (?) supply of oil ... or would the value of each dollar simply increase due to the shortage? If this is the case, why print new dollars?

2. If each new barrel of oil adds say $70 to the world, does this devalue the dollar? (The oil is burned or otherwise disappears, so the value is gone ... but the $70 are still floating around)

3. What proportion of the $70 actually returns to the USA, requiring the US to actually make or do something?

4. It seems that the oil is paid for TWICE ... once to the producer, and once again as a "tax" to the USA. Considering the sums involved, this means that the world is essentially working hard to keep the oil producers and the USA in a comfortable life style. This can't be a correct analysis can it?


Germany is the world's largest export manufacturer, but most of its exports are in fact paid for and consumed in the eurozone. Therefore, Germany's labor & fixed costs are mainly in euros, while they may buy commodities and other inputs denominated in dollars. Say, gas from Russia or crude oil from Dubai. In which case the gas is produced in rubles and the crude is produced in UAE dirhams.

Germany may take part of its proceeds from selling goods in euros and exchange those euros for dollars, say at $1.2385 to the euro and use those proceeds to buy gas or crude oil. Although, keep in mind that the cost of the gas or crude oil is by definition on part of their input costs and worth less than the value added or selling price of whatever they are manufacturing (unless they are losing money). In otherwords, energy inputs are a fraction of their manufacturing costs.

The Russian company accepts dollars for their gas, but they have to pay salaries and fixed costs in Russia in ruble, even if some of these salaries are also tied to the dollar in nominal terms. UAE company also needs to pay workers in Dubai in dirhams even though some of those salaries are also tied to the value of the dollar.

But so far these are just book-keeping entries. No cash money has changed hands, so no money has been printed. The German company may use Deutschbank who have a branch in NYC for dollar accounts. The Arabs may use a French Bank like BNP Paribas Paris who may use JP Chase for their dollar accounts. The Russians may have their USD accounts at Citibank London who have their accounts at Citi NYC. On the Trade Date (or trade dates) the German company sells euros and buys dollars, and then instructs their correspondant bank to pay those dollars to the correspondent banks of either the Russian company or the Arab company. If they only buy as many dollars as they need, their bank balance at the end of the settlement date will be zero. No money was created.

However, the Russians and the Arabs have dollar balances on their accounts now. They have several choices. They can sell dollars and buy Russian rubles or UAE dirham to pay for their fixed costs and salaries in local currency. They can use those dollars to pay for other inputs be they computers or software, perhaps bought from a Chinese company. Or they can choose to keep a fraction of their earnings from the sale of gas or crude oil in dollars.

If they keep some of the money in dollars, they will need to buy an asset or keep it on their account earning little or no interest. If they buy US treasury bills, then the money will go out of their nostro account at the US branch of their bank whether that is in London, Frankfurt, Paris or somewhere else. That money will go to the FED via DTC or Fed Wire and the client's securities account with their custodian will be credited with US tbills. However, they can just as easily decide to buy US equities or corporate bonds or stick the money into short-term commercial paper. They do not have to buy US treasuries. They can turn around and sell dollars and buy euros. The Russian or Arab company may have to buy production inputs or machinery in euros as well.

So far no banknotes have been printed. These are all just electronic book-keeping transactions. But keep in mind from a cash management point of view, you want to keep your cash balances in your various nostro accounts to a minimum. If your company demands a 12% ROE you cannot afford to keep idle balances invested in short term money market securities. Usually what the corporate treasury would then do is sweep all the foreign currency accounts everynight to keep balances at zero by doing overnight swaps.

It is up to the US branches of these banks (Citi, JP Chase, DB) to have enough physical cash on hand to pay out to depositors on demand. When they need physical cash they will go to a specialty bank like BONY and buy cash notes. Cash is very expensive to physically move around due to transport, insurance, distribution to money machines and you always need some surplus bills lying around that is not earning interest. BONY would buy the notes from the US FED. The FED would then debit their Fed wire account and deliver them cash. The money is printed by the US treasury.

So only a small amount of money gets printed depending on depositor demand, regardless of how many or how large those book-keeping entries are for the actual purchase/sale of gas or crude oil. Especially if that money gets repatriated or those dollars converted back into euros or a third currency.

And most large corporate customers have arrangements with their bank to net transactions, and banks themselves net transactions amoung themselves, so say that Citibank, BNP Paribas, JP Chase and Duetschebank all do 100 transactions per day with one another. They just net up all the buys and sells at the end of the day, and send one payment via SWIFT (6 in total), not one payment for every individual transaction (1200 in total).*

Hope that helps? Cheers.


*obviously that is netting just the dollars, they would also have to net the euros, yen, etc.
Last edited by MrBill on Tue 25 Apr 2006, 09:13:36, edited 2 times in total.
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Re: Petrodollars - is this how it works?

Postby TT » Tue 25 Apr 2006, 05:02:00

My brain hurts now. [smilie=laughing7.gif]
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Re: Petrodollars - is this how it works?

Postby TorrKing » Tue 25 Apr 2006, 05:15:56

I may be stupid here, but how does this gain the US? Is it because of control or does it have any financial benefits for them?

I have heard something about the US gaining intrests from somewhere from the petrodollar. How is that?

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Re: Petrodollars - is this how it works?

Postby Doly » Tue 25 Apr 2006, 05:37:24

Mr Bill, I understand that money rarely gets physically printed nowadays, and that "printing money" is more like a figure of speech.

But, isn't it correct that if the dollar is often used for international transactions (not just to pay for oil, but other international trade as well), this means that the US needs to create more money than they would need just for their own domestic use? And if that is the case, what are the economic implications of the existence of these extra dollars?
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Re: Petrodollars - is this how it works?

Postby MrBill » Tue 25 Apr 2006, 06:52:51

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('Doly', 'M')r Bill, I understand that money rarely gets physically printed nowadays, and that "printing money" is more like a figure of speech.

But, isn't it correct that if the dollar is often used for international transactions (not just to pay for oil, but other international trade as well), this means that the US needs to create more money than they would need just for their own domestic use? And if that is the case, what are the economic implications of the existence of these extra dollars?


Some transactions like most foreign exchange deals are zero sum games. As such a trillion dollars a day in buy & sell transactions might result in only several hundred millions a day in underlying real transfers. If the account is left at zero at the end of the day, nothing was created or destroyed. Only a debit/credit balance results in the need for A Step Two: either fund an Asset; or buy an Asset.

If I am theoretically an Arab and I sell some crude, let us say that I get $60 FOB Dubai. The difference between $60 and $75 world price may be transportation, delivery, handling, etc. From the $60 I also have costs of production including exploration costs, drilling, extraction, transport, rudementary refining, salaries, sales & marketing costs, royalties, backsheesh, etc. I am not pocketing $60. Let us say, closer to $30.

Technically, that $30 could head straight for the nearest US bank and get transmorphed into low yielding dollar site deposits. The US bank might like nothing better. Then based on the money multiplier effect, the marginal lending that the US banks could employ would mean my original $30 might recycled again and again.

However, the bank also needs to match assets to liabilities. They cannot very well take in site deposits and lend to home owners for 30-year fixed mortgages unless their regulator lets them take large interest rate gap risk. So likely, a portion of the site deposits will go to the Fed as minimum reserves, and the rest will be re-invested in short-term money market securities with a maturity of under one year. Maybe less than 10% of the original deposit might find its way into longer term assets. That is what Basel II is all about. Guidelines of what kind of risks banks may take and remain solvent.

But from my original $30 I am building manmade islands like crazy, so I have to import Pakistani day laborers that have to be fed & housed and even occasionally paid. I need to import machinery & equipment from Germany & Japan in euros & yen. I need air-conditioners from China. I have to pay my Italian designer in euros. My kids go to Oxford, so I have to pay for their educations, although all they do is go clubbing every night. Also darned expensive given the strength of Sterling. Heck, at the end of the day, my original $30 might only be $10.

And, as I have been boning-up on currency risk, and have read William R. Clark's 'Petrodollar Warfare', I know it is too risky to keep all of that $10 in US denominated assets, so I hedge my bets and put $5 into Citibank & GE shares and 4 euros into Deutschebank & Siemens shares.

So it pretty much depends now on Citibank and GE? They may decide they need to invest those dollars in a factory the USA or they may lend them to Argentina? At this point it is more useful to look at the macro statistics, which will aggregate each individual firm's investment decisions into one pie.

But technically, if I take my $30 and blow it all on Chinese imports, this has no effect on the good ol' USA's money supply. However, on a macro level, the Chinese may turn around and sterilize those inflows by buying US treasuries because they did not read Petrodollar Warfare. Now, are those recycled petrodollars or are they simply Chinese export earnings? If they are export earnings then how are they somehow different and special from Microsoft selling software? The oil in the desert created wealth and therefore a wealth multiplier effect through trade. The software by Microsoft also created net value added and therefore wealth.

The US needs to finance a current account deficit not because they import oil, but because they spend too much relative to what they produce. China, Japan and Germany also import oil, but they run current account surpluses.

So don't get bamboozled. Wealth is value created whether it comes from minerals mined, commodities grown, oil extracted from the ground, value added from manufacturing or services rendered, so long as someone is willing to pay for them, and the price reflects their true costs plus a return on capital.

If some of that wealth gets recycled into the US banking system then it creates an Asset or funds an Asset. If that wealth passes through a US bank account, but does not stick around, it neither creates value nor destroys value. It is just a book-keeping entry. A debit and a credit with a zero balance. Anyone that tells you anything different is selling you snake oil.

What is in it for the banks? Fee income. A net drain on the system. Sometimes interest income. The difference they pocket between their assets and liabilities. Trading income. What they earn by positioning the market and laying-off the risks to others.

What is in it for US companies? Well, they do not have to run foreign exchange risk if all transactions are denominated in dollars. So why would US companies expand offshore where they now have costs in foreign currency? Because they think they can make money or lower their costs.

What is in it for foreign companies? Well, if you can buy & sell at home in euros or yen, not much. But if you have capital controls on export earnings like rubles or yuan, then you might like to denominate your contracts in dollars just the same. If there are no capital controls, then 'usually' the buyer has greater bargaining power, and they will decide whether to price a contract in dollars, euros or yen (where legal, as you cannot pay with dollars or euros in Russia, only rubles for example). If you are investing in a foreign country (FDI) you might like to have a semi-guaranteed exit strategy or at least a formula for revenue sharing if it is a JV in a hard currency.

The dollar works great as a transaction currency. It is not a good long-term store of value. However, so long as the volumes are not huge, you can trade in Canadian dollars, Swiss franc, Norwegian koruna or anything else that suits your fancy. You just have to set-up correspondent accounts in each currency you want to trade-in which can be an admin hassle.
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Re: Petrodollars - is this how it works?

Postby bartholland » Tue 25 Apr 2006, 09:30:21

Doly, did you find your answer somewhere in there? ;-) I didn't, but that's probably bc of my novice economical skills..

Mrbill,

supposse oilprices raise by 100% and productions stays the same.
suppose all oil is sold in dollars.
suppose all other factors stay the same

Is it possible forecast something about the value of the dollar compared to a basket of other currencies?
And is it possible at all to suggest what effect this will have in simplified terms on any financial data?
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Re: Petrodollars - is this how it works?

Postby miraculix » Tue 25 Apr 2006, 09:55:03

Mr Bill - thank you for the elaborate discourse.

Nonetheless, I have the feeling that none of the above really addresses the initial question.

Aside from the technicalities of correspondant banking etc., the issue, the way I understood it, is as follows:

The total volume of any given currency should be backed by something tangible in exchange. Such a collateral used to be gold, until Nixon finally abandoned Bretton-Woods (1971) and turned the US dollar into a fiat currency (backed only by trust in the value of the currency rather than any intrinsic value)
Since the oil crisis of 1973 oil is denominated in US dollars.
Easing restrictions on cross border capital flows and globalization of the financial markets in the 1990s has led to what Henry C.K. Liu terms the dollar hegemony. dollar hegemony
Dollar Hegemony prevents the exporting nations from spending domestically the dollars they earn from the US trade deficit and forces them to finance the US capital account surplus, thus shipping real wealth to the US in exchange for the privilege of financing US debt to further develop the US economy.
In essence, this means that through the current account deficit, the US is issuing checks drawn on an empty account, and those checks never clear, since they are not returned as liability to that account, but in some cases as an asset iof a say T-Bond account.
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Re: Petrodollars - is this how it works?

Postby MrBill » Tue 25 Apr 2006, 10:41:40

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('bartholland', 'D')oly, did you find your answer somewhere in there? ;-) I didn't, but that's probably bc of my novice economical skills..

Mrbill,

supposse oilprices raise by 100% and productions stays the same.
suppose all oil is sold in dollars.
suppose all other factors stay the same

Is it possible forecast something about the value of the dollar compared to a basket of other currencies?
And is it possible at all to suggest what effect this will have in simplified terms on any financial data?


Maybe you have to take as much time reading it and understanding it as I did writing it? ; - )


Sorry, in answer to your questions, it is not impossible, but very difficult. If I do a bad job it reflects poorly on me. To do it properly would really take a long time.

I cannot imagine prices going up 100%, production staying the same, and keeping all factors unchanged at the same time? For example, different levels of fuel efficiency or units of energy per unit of output would hurt more energy intensive economies disproportionately.

If I assume OECD ave = G7 ave
then (approx)

USA = 100%
Germany = 85% (approx)
Japan = 67%
China = 400%

So any doubling in energy prices is going to hurt China more than Japan, and USA more than Germany. As Germany exports to China that would hurt German exports. As Japan exports to China, but competes with China for exports, it may gain in competiveness, but see exports to China decline. As the USA imports from China and Japan higher energy imports would come at the expense of lower exports from China and Japan. If we assume in the short to medium term that energy use in the USA is relatively inelastic than demand destruction from higher fuel prices would have to come from reduced imports from Asia (again trying to keep everything else constant, which means not increasing overall levels of personal debt for example).

As all the above countries are net energy importers, obviously doubling energy costs would reduce their trade surpluses or in the case of the US increase their trade deficit. That is a net transfer to energy exporters.

If we keep all else the same it becomes a guessing game what happens to those excess petrol-dollars? Do they go to Germany for equipment & machinery creating demand for euros? Do they go to China and therefore either end of up as Chinese exports priced in dollars or get recycled back into US treasuries if they are sterilized?

It is next to impossible to keep variables unchanged and still make forecasts that reflect reality. And that of course would affect the dollar's strength against any basket of currencies?

So in short, if you double energy prices, and all energy is priced in dollars, than net energy importers will see their trade surpluses reduced at the same time as exporters will see their exports reduced as the importer of last resort has less money to pay for imports because they have to pay twice as much for energy, too. All else being equal.

In this simplistic scenario it obviously favors the energy exporters who would see their currencies appreciate (if they were not pegged to dollar).

Next Japan is relatively better off as it is a net exporter, has a current account surplus and energy price increases affect it less than the others as it is more efficient. Germany is in a similar situation as Japan, but as it exports capital goods it is more vulnerable to a slowdown in China.

China is vulnerable because they use more energy per unit of output/are less efficient and are therefore more exposed to higher energy prices (again we have to assume they cannot substitute more labor for less energy by cutting wages or lengthening the working day/less days off). And they are vulnerable to a drop-off in exports to the USA as the USA cuts imports of non-essentials to make-up for imports of energy (because we assumed in the short to medium term that energy use was inelastic and demand destruction would have to come from cut backs somewhere else).

The USA is bad off because they need to pay twice as much for energy imports, so they have less discretionary spending. And as they run a current account deficit that gap has to be closed by a) higher taxes, b) less imports, c) borrowing from abroad, which might mean, d) higher interest rates, and/or e) a weaker dollar.

But I still feel from this simple analysis that the USA is still comparatively better off than China who is the most exposed to higher prices and a drop off in consumer demand, while having fewer legacy assets or personal wealth to deal with the fall-out.
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Re: Petrodollars - is this how it works?

Postby MOCKBA » Tue 25 Apr 2006, 11:04:44

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('miraculix', '
')The total volume of any given currency should be backed by something tangible in exchange.

The convinience of using USD as a medium of exchange as outlined by Mr. Bill is very tangible. Add to that the safety of the USD that is very tangible (as demonstrated by financial crisis of the late XX century). The diversity of US assets is very tangible. Property laws being enforced in US for couple centuries (or longest continious enforcement in modern history) is very tangible. The list could go on.


$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('miraculix', '
')Such a collateral used to be gold,


Money is only what people agree to be money. This has been demonstrated thruout the history, and not only with green back. Think fur pelts or sea shells or wooden sticks in Britain or Barklay's letters of exchange... The list again could go on and on.
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Re: Petrodollars - is this how it works?

Postby MOCKBA » Tue 25 Apr 2006, 11:16:23

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('MrBill', '
')The USA is bad off because they need to pay twice as much for energy imports, so they have less discretionary spending. And as they run a current account deficit that gap has to be closed by a) higher taxes, b) less imports, c) borrowing from abroad, which might mean, d) higher interest rates, and/or e) a weaker dollar.


I would vote for "b)less imports" because at some point in time it could be cheaper to produce in US and despite how unprobable it sounds, export more. Look at auto industry. At what point is would be cheaper to assemble cars in Michigan and export them to Ontario, vs. assemble cars in Ontario and importing them to Michigan?
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Re: Petrodollars - is this how it works?

Postby MOCKBA » Tue 25 Apr 2006, 11:42:58

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('MrBill', '
')And, as I have been boning-up on currency risk, and have read William R. Clark's 'Petrodollar Warfare', I know it is too risky to keep all of that $10 in US denominated assets, so I hedge my bets and put $5 into Citibank & GE shares and 4 euros into Deutschebank & Siemens shares.


High five! :)

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('MrBill', '
')But technically, if I take my $30 and blow it all on Chinese imports, this has no effect on the good ol' USA's money supply. However, on a macro level, the Chinese may turn around and sterilize those inflows by buying US treasuries because they did not read Petrodollar Warfare. Now, are those recycled petrodollars or are they simply Chinese export earnings?


Now to complete the picture we need to cover what happens with Chinese sterilized inflows and US treasuries sitting on the balances of Chinese banks. Those US treasuries would be Chinese bank assets, like any assets they need to be further leveraged to earn more then risk free rate US is paying. So how Chinese banks (or Chinese Central Bank for that matter) go about it?
1. Diversifying into Won, Yen and Euro when their paper is overpriced (which is clear when you work supply/demand equation) and you could hardly find any or
2. giving bad loans to unprofitable state enterprises to keep Communism afloat?
3. Or may be both?

In Russia the situation is not much different. Are the assets being used to create more wealth (like may be in building non raw materials exporting economy) or merely to redistribute wealth off Khodorkovskys?

So where are we as far as initial $60 are concerned? At $0.50 or at a quarter already? Does this really justify USD being as weak as the rest of the world sees it?
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Re: Petrodollars - is this how it works?

Postby Stelmsind2 » Tue 25 Apr 2006, 14:52:53

OK, I think most of the above makes sense, and I'm sure what doesn't will come by thinking about it a little more ;)

The one thing that puzzles me is, why doesn't all the dollars that the US issues end up back in circulation and end up devaluing it? (more dollars competing to buy the same amount of "stuff"). Why aren't countries trading between themselves in dollars, rather than holding it back in foreign reserves?

The answer to this seems to be: "To prevent speculative and manipulative attacks on their currencies, the world's central banks must acquire and hold dollar reserves in corresponding amounts to their currencies in circulation. The higher the market pressure to devalue a particular currency, the more dollar reserves its central bank must hold."
- http://www.atimes.com/global-econ/DD11Dj01.html

How does this work? How does holding a reserve of dollars prevent currency devaluation?
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Re: Petrodollars - is this how it works?

Postby UIUCstudent01 » Tue 25 Apr 2006, 17:57:33

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('Stelmsind2', 'T')he one thing that puzzles me is, why doesn't all the dollars that the US issues end up back in circulation and end up devaluing it? (more dollars competing to buy the same amount of "stuff").


This sentence made me have an idea. Some people say that the average wage hasn't increased almost at all for some 20 years or so in the U.S. or something to that effect..

That means (lets assume population is constant or that the increase in population corresponded to an increase in goods - (this is a pretty shaky assumption, I know)) that there was the same flow of money chasing after goods.

Now, corporation profits (and CEO compensation) have increased dramatically. Does the flow of some money actually have less effect on inflation because it isn't actually used to buy ten tons of cheeseburgers from Burger King or 10 million barrels of gasoline. But rather, it is just kept and passed around to people who are used to dealing with large amounts of money and that require large amounts of money? (Let's say a football star decides to buy and hold $60 million stocks in microsoft for 50 years or so (passing it to his heirs). That money won't be chasing goods for daily living (gasoline, food). The money will go on to employ people who will be consuming gasoline and food, but it won't be buying $60 million dollars worth of these goods.

So is there some money that doesn't actually raise the price of goods all that much? The M3 money line was supposedly an indicator for inflation (some time back), but if a great deal of this money doesn't actually change the price of the majority of common goods, than the money doesn't actually contribute to inflation as would more immediate and liquid money (M1 line)?

I guess what I'm saying is that the M3 line not being reported might actually be because it is useless? Where does the M3 money-line come into play exactly in all this?
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Re: Petrodollars - is this how it works?

Postby MrBill » Wed 26 Apr 2006, 02:47:50

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('Stelmsind2', 'O')K, I think most of the above makes sense, and I'm sure what doesn't will come by thinking about it a little more ;)

The one thing that puzzles me is, why doesn't all the dollars that the US issues end up back in circulation and end up devaluing it? (more dollars competing to buy the same amount of "stuff"). Why aren't countries trading between themselves in dollars, rather than holding it back in foreign reserves?

The answer to this seems to be: "To prevent speculative and manipulative attacks on their currencies, the world's central banks must acquire and hold dollar reserves in corresponding amounts to their currencies in circulation. The higher the market pressure to devalue a particular currency, the more dollar reserves its central bank must hold."
- http://www.atimes.com/global-econ/DD11Dj01.html

How does this work? How does holding a reserve of dollars prevent currency devaluation?


This is not far from the mark, but it is not accurate either. A bit of both.


Six of one, half dozen of another

At any given time one can probably make a plausable case to sell dollars or to buy dollars (euros, yen, yuan, etc.) depending on what competing assumptions you make about the present and your expectations for the future. The market is usually looking over the horizon for the next big event.

Current Account Surplus

If your country runs a budget surplus, trade surplus, has low levels of structural unemployment and high labor productivity, and if your future liabilities are well-funded then my guess is that your currency will naturally appreciate over time and as a central bank you will be inclined to hold fewer reserves because your risk of an attack on your currency is small and would likely be unsuccessful.

Current Account Deficit

Of course, another country can keep their currency stable against yours in the short to medium term even if they have worse fundamentals, say a trade & budget deficit (current account deficit) if they also have higher labor productivity, low unemployment and can afford to pay an positive interest rate differential over your currency to attract either foreign investment or foreign capital to plug their current account deficit. However, as you may have guessed, this state is less stable, so as the central bank for this country you will have to hold larger foreign exchange reserves to stave off any speculative attack on your currency.

Thailand, Indonesia, Vietnam

However, foreign reserves are not just there to ward-off speculators, they have a legitimate purpose of providing X no. of days of import cover, in essence providing liquidity to make sure critical imports are not held up due to a lack of commercial foreign exchange reserves, which can happen in countries with capital controls who mandate exporters repatriate a given percent of their export earnings to be held by the central bank.

China & Asian Tigers

Also other central banks do not want their local currencies to appreciate making them uncompetitive for exporters, or allowing excess liquidity into the local market which may stoke inflation at home, so they sterlize foreign investment, foreign capital and repatriated export earnings in their foreign exchange reserves to prevent those inflows.

Asian Financial Crisis

And finally a central bank may notice that local interest rates are high in nominal terms, so that local businesses are borrowing in foreign currency to invest at home. This creates a mismatch between assets and liabilities. If the local currency devalues, then it may be hard for those local businesses to pay back loans in hard currency. Therefore, the central bank may wish to hold more foreign exchange reserves to support the local currency during times of stress.

Other reasons....

Japan

Ironically, Japan makes money by holding reserves in foreign currencies because the positive interest they earn on those holdings is higher than the effective zero interest rates they pay on yen deposits, and offset any currency losses from the yen appreciating in most cases.

Malaysia

Bank Negara used to be an infamous currency speculator. While it was against the law to sell Malaysian ringgit forward, the central bank itself used to speculate heavily in other people's backyards using essentially inside information. This had several unintended consequences.

First, other central bankers stopped sharing critical information with them. For example, if the Fed, Bundesbank, BOE & BOJ were going to intervene in the currency markets to support the dollar, they would not tell Negara first because Negara was using this inside info to position the market for their own trading.

Secondly, Negara lost about $16 billion dollars, so a lot of senior heads rolled at the bank, and now they are a shadow of their former self. I guess after they lost that inside edge they took too many one sided bets and lost?

And thirdly, as we all know, Dr. Mahathir bin Mohamad railed against George Soros and all other currency speculators to denounce them, although we all know it is because Negara itself was playing the same game, but less successfully.

And now you know the rest of the story.
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Re: Petrodollars - is this how it works?

Postby MrBill » Wed 26 Apr 2006, 03:22:31

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', '[')quote="UIUCstudent01]
This sentence made me have an idea. Some people say that the average wage hasn't increased almost at all for some 20 years or so in the U.S. or something to that effect..

That means (lets assume population is constant or that the increase in population corresponded to an increase in goods - (this is a pretty shaky assumption, I know)) that there was the same flow of money chasing after goods.

Now, corporation profits (and CEO compensation) have increased dramatically. Does the flow of some money actually have less effect on inflation because it isn't actually used to buy ten tons of cheeseburgers from Burger King or 10 million barrels of gasoline. But rather, it is just kept and passed around to people who are used to dealing with large amounts of money and that require large amounts of money? (Let's say a football star decides to buy and hold $60 million stocks in microsoft for 50 years or so (passing it to his heirs). That money won't be chasing goods for daily living (gasoline, food). The money will go on to employ people who will be consuming gasoline and food, but it won't be buying $60 million dollars worth of these goods.

So is there some money that doesn't actually raise the price of goods all that much? The M3 money line was supposedly an indicator for inflation (some time back), but if a great deal of this money doesn't actually change the price of the majority of common goods, than the money doesn't actually contribute to inflation as would more immediate and liquid money (M1 line)?

I guess what I'm saying is that the M3 line not being reported might actually be because it is useless? Where does the M3 money-line come into play exactly in all this?


The M1, M2 & M3 issue has been beaten to death in my point of view. If you google it you will find accurate definitions for each. Essentially, it is a narrow view of cash and cash equivalents in the system; then a wider measure; and finally M3 which attempted to count all the cash & cash equivalents sloshing around the globe. In my opinion, it was more trouble to collect the data than it was worth due to gaping holes and time lags which made comparisons difficult and often misleading. M3 was never intended to be a measure of inflation. But many feel more strongly about this issue than I do. If you want a task try to adding up the sums of yen employed in the so called yen carry trades? Now, there is a challenge! ; - )

In any case, money is money, so long as it is in the system and being deployed. Like you pointed out, someone who is wealthy may make their money work vey hard by lending it only to companies who can put it to work hard. For example they might expect their hedge fund manager to deliver 15% returns per year versus putting it into less productive bonds at 4%. The only way the fund manager can deliver on this is to make that money work very hard.

However, if you are talking about the money multiplier effect there is a huge difference between tax cuts for the rich and tax cuts for the middle classes. As you pointed out, if they get money they are likely to use this cash immediately to buy food (cheeseburers) and essentials (gasoline) and are less likely to save it or invest it. That means a direct stimulus to the economy now.

But to be honest you need both kinds of saving and investing. You need money circulating in the real economy, and you need money ear marked for longer, more strategic investments. Although you can buy and sell oil company shares everyday, when an oil company issues debt or equity, it is because they need a deep pool of liquidity for their capital projects which may have a break even point far into the future.

As for wages. You might find this page interesting as it covers real wage increases (in constant dollars) for female workers. I find it interesting because generally women earn less than men; are the last into the workforce and the first out (LIFO); and therefore their participation in the workforce is a reflection of the periphery of the labor market, and so reflect real income gains (although quite modest in my opinion).
Hourly Wages for Female Workers 1973-2003

But, obviously your other assumption that population is steady or only growing in line with an increase in goods cannot be supported. The US is growing in population quite rapidly due to a relatively young population (in comparison to Europe for example); Americans having more children per couple than other rich world countries (a measure of confidence in the future); and high levels of legal and illegal immigration (also higher reproductive rates).

Therefore, if I look at higher wages in constant inflation adjusted terms for one of the weakest groups in terms of earning and bargaining power, and a growing population overall, I have to conclude that Americans are getting more wealthy in absolute terms*, and of course with more Americans that means America itself is becoming more wealthy even without the flattering effects of inflation. Plus trade means that many goods are becoming cheaper in real terms, so the purchasing power of Americans is also rising at the sametime.

Whether that continues in the future depends on your view of America post peak oil? Or more accurately, how Americans react to the realities of post peak oil.

*this is not to deny that more households also may have double incomes, and that individuals may be working harder, longer and with fewer holidays to create some of this extra wealth.


By the way, it seems that even those who get paid to write about these things do not really understand them?
$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', 'F')or more than three decades, the markets have been focusing on the so-called "core" rate of inflation. First conceived of by Arthur Burns, the chairman of the Federal Reserve back in the 1970s, this measure excludes food and energy.
Burns was concerned that the price indexes were being inflated by increases in the cost of food and energy, which he believed had little to do with the state of economic activity. Removing these two components supposedly painted a better picture of supply and demand in the economy, thus the underlying rate of inflation.

[url=http://www.marketwatch.com/News/Story/Story.aspx?guid={B3A64C33-45EE-40A7-9083-674C79F9A026}&siteid=mktw&dist=nbi]Why a low 'core inflation' rate may not be good news[/url]

He completely misses the point about secondary inflation feeding through from food & energy into core inflation, but he makes an excellent point at the end about demand destruction viz a vie higher food & energy prices squeezing out other discretionary spending. I give him a C+
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