by ashurbanipal » Tue 10 Jan 2006, 22:25:49
PenultimateManStanding,
Actually, that means of organizing the EM spectrum was probably determined (albeit unconsciously) with our method of doing mathematics.
Science is like any other human activity, which means the foremost thing to be kept in mind is that human beings are the ones who do it.
Anyway, to your specific point:
$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', 'w')e have models showing the EM spectrum stretching far out into both the ultraviolet and infrared; a linear model for all intents and purposes, no?
Well, keep in mind that no one has actually seen an EM wave, and in principle no one could. We can see interference patterns, and thinking about EM radiation as a wave turns out to be convenient for any number of reasons. But it's a model that happens to fit very snuggly with almost all our observations about EM radiation, so we stick with it (though there are those curious times that EM radiation behaves like a particle, not a wave). But without that model, what would we mean by such terms as "wavelength," "frequency," "and "amplitude?" And if we didn't measure those things, on what would that linear scale depend? Maybe something else, maybe nothing. I'm not sure there's a way we could know.
It's logically demonstrable that, for any given theory T, there is some theory T' that consists of different statements, but has exactly the same observational consequences. Some very smart philosophers and scientists believe that if the observational consequences are exactly the same, then the statements that make T and T' must be logically equivalent. Some equally smart philosophers and scientists think otherwise. I happen to fall into the latter camp--see W.V.O. Quine for discussion of scientific indeterminism at some length.
One more thought and I'll stop: Ever heard of something called "Synasthesia?" It's a fairly rare phenomenon where the person who is a synaesthete experiences some non-normative sensory stimuli in the presence of unrelated stimuli. For instance, a synasthete may see the number "3" and always hear middle C played on a piano. Or, on hearing a person sing at a certain pitch, the person always smells perfume.
It turns out to be a real phenomenon--not something that's just "in their head." One fairly well-reviewed experiment tested some synaesthetes' who heard a particular noise in the presence of a given word or symbol. The experimenters tested the subjects by showing them the words embedded in a large visual tableau where a normal subject would take a considerable amount of time to acquire the presence of the word (like, for instance, showing a movie-screen-size page from the New York Times that contained the word "skunk" in one of the stories). The synaesthetes were able to tell when the trigger word was present at the same speed that a person is able to respond to a heard stimulus--meaning that prior to them being able to locate the word visually, they heard the sound that tipped them off to the presence of the word. The effect was instantaneous in every instance--meaning that for the synaesthete, a given printed word really is accompanied by a sound.
This is a pretty weird result, and there's plenty of study of it. The interesting question for philosophers is this: could it be that given words "really" are accompanied by tones or sounds that most people are simply wired not to hear? Maybe yes, maybe no. How would you tell?
In a world that is not whole, you have got to fight just to keep your soul.
-Ben Harper-