A link to a nice article (Via James H. Kunstler):
http://www.livejournal.com/users/dpodbori/3005.html
$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', 'E')xhibit A is the argument I have seen being used all the time, starting from the Vice President Dick Cheney in televized interviews, to TV personalities characterized by Nassim Taleb as "financial entertainers of the excessively commentating variety" on the CNN's The Money Line with Lou Dobbs. This same argument is utilized explicitly and implicitly in a range of documents from pronouncements by Chief Economists to publications by IEA.
The argument goes like this (I generalize it from all these multiple sources):
<i>Because our economy requires a lot less oil circa 2005 for each dollar of GDP that it generates than circa 1973, therefore it (the economy) is much less vulnerable to oil supply disruptions and oil price spikes than it was 30 years ago.</i>
It is just incredible to me to hear this argument again and again in our enlightened age from such a diverse group of seemingly intelligent people (although I suspect that, say, Dick Cheney may have much more insight into the nature of our energy predicament than he is letting on). If our economy, for the sake of the argument, doubled in terms of dollars of GDP since 1973 (let's measure everything in constant dollars, adjusting for inflation), and (again, for the sake of the argument) our annual oil consumption did not change from back then, we have twice as many dollars of GDP riding on the same barrel of oil we consume, do we not? Doesn't it make the economy <b>twice as vulnerable</b> (as expressed in the monetary impact) to the same amount of oil shortage (as expressed in barrels), instead of less vulnerable?



