by KaiserJeep » Tue 23 Apr 2019, 17:45:28
It's an interesting question. Prior rulings have established that all resident people in this country enjoy some but not all rights delineated in the US Constitution. The right to vote is a key priviledge.
I myself take a pragmatic approach. If a person has a valid SSN and a history of paying payroll taxes, and a voter registration (either a party or non-aligned), they should be able to vote. If however they have been participating in an underground economy, have been enjoying the privileges of a citizen without paying - then they are a criminal and a burden on real citizens.
KaiserJeep 2.0, Neural Subnode 0010 0000 0001 0110 - 1001 0011 0011, Tertiary Adjunct to Unimatrix 0000 0000 0001
Resistance is Futile, YOU will be Assimilated.
Warning: Messages timestamped before April 1, 2016, 06:00 PST were posted by the unmodified human KaiserJeep 1.0