by davep » Sun 18 Sep 2016, 12:38:24
$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', 'T')he Great Oil Spike was followed immediately by the Great Recession. They sure seem to be related. Can you explain in some sort of logical way why the biggest oil spike in history didn't effect the economy?
As others have said, correlation does not mean a causal relationship. Every great recession happens after banks relax credit before tightening money supply. In the process, costs of energy will increase as production increases and we're awash with money. Then after they tighten credit and broad money becomes scarce, we have a recession and a collapse in energy prices.
There may well be an element of causality for the final days of easy money, but it certainly follows an established economic pattern with debt-based money (yes, I have a hobby horse too). See
https://www.imf.org/external/pubs/ft/wp/2012/wp12202.pdf$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', 'F')isher and many of his contemporaries perceived to be the major source of business cycle
fluctuations, sudden increases and contractions of bank credit that are not necessarily
driven by the fundamentals of the real economy, but that themselves change those
fundamentals. In a financial system with little or no reserve backing for deposits, and with
government-issued cash having a very small role relative to bank deposits, the creation of
a nation’s broad monetary aggregates depends almost entirely on banks’ willingness to
supply deposits. Because additional bank deposits can only be created through additional
bank loans, sudden changes in the willingness of banks to extend credit must therefore not
only lead to credit booms or busts, but also to an instant excess or shortage of money, and
therefore of nominal aggregate demand
$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', 'W')e find strong support for all four of Fisher’s claims, with the potential for
across the economy, and a replacement of that debt by debt-free government-issued money