Right, I need to ask some more questions. These are genuine questions as I do not fully understand the process of oil extraction. Please do not flame me to death , I'm just trying to learn (I feel like a Burger king burger sometimes
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From what I read on this site (and others) one of the biggest fears is that oil producers like SA, Iran , Kuwait , UAE etc etc will face rapid decline rates because of using MRE methods to extract their oil. This allows maximum short term production, but then the field declines faster and reduces the URR of the field. This means that post peak we could be facing Year on Year decline rates of 10% +!
Now this is where I have the problems understanding. Apart from the last 2 years or so , many oil producers (mainly OPEC) were producing way under there production maximums because of the slump in the price throughout he 80's and 90's. So why would they use MRE methods? Surely if oil producers are producing way below there capacity, by definition, they are not using MRE? If this is the case, the decline rate would be slower post peak?
My next query is that of the US. Now I can understand that there average decline rate since 1970 has been aided by new GOM and Alaskan production. However both of these areas have been in decline for sometime and yet decline rates have still been in the 1.5-3% rate per year. This is despite the US pumping at FULL CAPACITY throughout the 80's and 90's UNLIKE OPEC producers!
Lastly, why doesnt the US use MRE and the other producers do?
I am not challenging the mighty Simmons , I am just trying to understand.
I hope I am asking question others were to afraid to ask !
PB



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