by Outcast_Searcher » Wed 12 Aug 2015, 16:55:29
$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('misterno', ':')shock: Saudi Arabia has over $680BN in their reserve all invested in US Treasuries.
Now they are selling bonds which means they have to pay interest on debt. Since the interest rate on this debt can not be lower or equal to US treasury rate, then that means they will be paying more interest on debt than the interest they receive from their reserve.
Why would they want to do that? This does not make sense.
![dontknow [smilie=dontknow.gif]](https://udev.peakoil.com/forums/images/smilies/dontknow.gif)
Well, it's not clear to me that they must pay a higher rate.
1). In the article I found which stated details, the tranches are 5, 7, and 10 year "bonds".
2). I'm not finding numbers anywhere CLOSE to the $680 billion number you give on ustreasury.gov, where it is documented. For a whole group of oil exporters (15 countries), I'm seeing well under half of that as of May, 2015 (the last month they give).
http://www.treasury.gov/ticdata/Publish/mfhhis01.txt3). If they are holding long term debt (treasury.gov says 90% of the debt in total held by such countries is longer term) -- then they might be paying LESS if they're issuing (for example) 5 year notes and holding 25ish year bonds.
4). They might be doing it for liquidity reasons. IF they plan on continuing to sell cheap oil in massive quantities at prices causing massive budget deficits for years -- they may well want such liquidity.
These are just off the top of my head -- such situations are seldomly trivial, given the complex (and not fully disclosed) long term financial strategies such countries might be using. The only thing we can be sure of is that they will PERCEIVE that what they are doing is in their own best interest.
Given the track record of the perma-doomer blogs, I wouldn't bet a fast crash doomer's money on their predictions.