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Economics/Math (split from OPEC thread)

Discussions about the economic and financial ramifications of PEAK OIL

Re: Economics/Math (split from OPEC thread)

Unread postby bdmarti » Mon 09 Oct 2006, 14:04:25

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('GoIllini', '
')OK; why does the federal government then also have the power to "regulate the value of money?" More importantly, the federal government isn't charged with the power to "measure gold into 1-oz coins and regulate them like weights and measures"; it's charged with the power to make, or "coin" money.


Just so we all know that I don't just make things up, I'd like to quote from the supreme court case Hepburn v. Griswold of 1870.
This case said the "legal tender" law passed under Lincoln, and resulting in the inflated "greenbacks" was not legal, in that the government could not enforce "legal tender" for debts incurred prior to the passage of a legal tender law for a number of constitutional reasons.

Here's a quote from the opinion of the court:
$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', '
')But can a power to impart these qualities to notes, or promises to pay money, when offered in discharge of pre-existing
debts, be derived from the coinage power, or from any other power expressly given?

It is certainly not the same power as the power to coin money. Nor is it in any reasonable or satisfactory sense an appropriate or plainly adapted means to the exercise of that power. Nor is there more reason for saying that it is implied in, or incidental to, the power to regulate the value of coined money of the United States, or of foreign coins. This power of regulation is a power to determine the weight, purity, form, impression, and denomination of the several coins, and their relation to each other, and the relations of foreign coins to the monetary unit of the United States.

Nor is the power to make notes a legal tender the same as the power to issue notes to be used as currency. The old Congress, under the Articles of Confederation, was clothed by express grant with the power to emit bills of credit, which are in fact notes for circulation as currency; and yet that Congress was not clothed with the power to make these bills a legal tender in payment. And this court has recently held that the Congress, under the Constitution, possesses, as incidental to other powers, the same power as the old Congress to emit bills or notes; but it was expressly declared at the same time that this decision concluded nothing on the question of legal tender. Indeed, we are not aware that it has ever been claimed that the power to issue bills or notes has any identity with the power to make them a legal tender. On the contrary, the whole history of the country refutes that notion. The States have always been held to possess the power to authorize and regulate the issue of bills for circulation by banks or individuals, subject, as has been lately determined, to the control of Congress, for the purpose of establishing and securing a National currency; and yet the States are expressly prohibited by the Constitution from making anything but gold and silver coin a legal tender. This seems decisive on the point that the power to issue notes and the power to make them a legal tender are not the same power, and that they have no necessary connection with each other.

....

We are obliged to conclude that an act making mere promises to pay dollars a legal tender in payment of debts previously contracted, is not a means appropriate, plainly adapted, really calculated to carry into effect any express power vested in Congress; that such an act is inconsistent with the spirit of the Constitution; and that it is prohibited by the Constitution.


a couple years after this case, two new "friendly" judges were appointed and this ruling was overturned, along with the first 100 years of precedent in the US in terms of currency laws.
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Re: Economics/Math (split from OPEC thread)

Unread postby GoIllini » Wed 11 Oct 2006, 13:31:25

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('bdmarti', 'I')f you wish to have a unit of money called a "dollar" and you grant the government the ability to "coin" dollars, then it is also a rather useful tool for the government to have the authority to declare what exactly is a "dollar" in terms of something like gold or silver. Thus, a dollar could be 1oz of silver. The government would have the authority to coin such dollars out of silver.
Other banks or entities would be free to make all the silver coins they wanted, and they could possibly even call them dollars if they had an oz of silver, but they most certainly could not call them dollars if they were not what the government defined a dollar to be.

This is one interpretation. What happens when the U.S. government changes what the value of a "dollar" is? Say I go into the bank, give them a large, pre-1860 penny, and they give me back an indian head penny, because the federal government redefined what a penny was. This was obviously legal.

Coins not made by the U.S. government but treated as such were almost always frowned upon or considered illegal. There are accounts of the secret service shutting down various goldsmiths during the Colorado gold rush, for example. No well-established bank ever really made coins, except for a few very odd cases under license from the U.S. Mint.

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', '
')"To coin Money, regulate the Value thereof, and of foreign Coin, and fix the Standard of Weights and Measures;"

Isn't it interesting how the ability to regulate "weights and measures" is right there with the ability to coin money? Could it be better that we all use the same definitions of OZ an LB when measuring money commodities, and thus a standard, legaly binding definition of such measures is a good thing? Or maybe they just lumped these things together arbitrarily...

I see them as the same thing; specifically enumerated economic powers within the states. The federal government had the power to regulate the trade of commodities; it also had the separately stated power of fixing the value of money.

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', 'N')o. Mosty certianly not when one is discussing a legal document such as the constitution. All clauses in the document are relevant.

Your disneyland analogy is hopelessly off the mark.


That's great, but there's a comma there. I'll admit the framers saw these two as related (see above response), but in a legal document, the fact that the clauses have separate verbs means that the powers really don't go together.

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', '
')Yes I am.
I agree that nearly all the citizens of the US are blind to the constitutional fraud perpetuated by the elite upon the masses in the form of the FED.

I'm claiming that even if this were true, your argument is moot. The Supreme Court, Congress, the President, the Fed and everyone else in power believes this is constitutional, along with 99.5% of the populace, and it's been this way for about 90 years. If enough people accept an interpretation of a document long enough, that becomes the document's meaning.

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', 'Y')ou don't need to convince the masses of it's legality, as the winner writes the history books and the text books. Simply spout out in the classroom that it's true often enough and all too few people will examine or question the issue at all.

What you need is to put a few corrupt judges in place such that they will allow the FED in it's initial state to exist. Then you can jump on a calamaty like the depression and take away everyone's gold in the name of the common good...while people are a bit too hungry and desperate to argue much. Then over the course of the next 3 generations take small steps to whittle away at the gold standard bit by bit...just a tiny bit so that you don't rile up the populace too much at once.

This is an interesting conspiracy theory. Do you have any proof that certain presidents appointed corrupt judges? Were any of them convicted of fraud? Any of them impeached for accepting bribes?

Most conspiracies on such a scale are extremely difficult, if not impossible to carry out. You could argue we had stupid judges, but not corrupt ones.

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', '
')Obviously? You are making an assertion here that I feel you should back up.

You tell me why the government taxes and borrows when it has the power to print.

I think that it is in large part necissary to maintain the illusion of value in the fiat currency. If the government showed it's true face and just ran the presses it wouldn't be able to shift the blame on inflation as easily.

In other words, if the government turned on the printing presses, economic chaos would ensue. The government has a fiduciary responsibility to regulate the money supply, not profit off of it.

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', 'T')he FACT is, that the government does not NEED to tax or borrow at all if what you claim is true. It could very well print all the money it wants.
Not true. At some point, the economy will be unable to absorb all of the new money getting printed, and the value of the money the U.S. government can print will approach some inflation-adjusted limit.

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', 'R')endering the borrowing and taxing clauses pointless, beyond a means of decieving people, but I like to think the constitution wasn't written with deception in mind.
Again, it's impossible to sustainably run the government on printing money alone.


$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', '
')I dissagree. I think this issue is equally important. It may even be more importaint because at least the issues you mention are getting some real news coverage.
If the federal government can get away with something unconstitutional even after the public calls them on it, it can get away with anything.

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', '
')(like whether the Federal gov't has the power to detain people without a warrant, whether torture is "cruel and unusual punishment", or whether the government can wiretap us without a warrant.)


$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', 'B')ut then again...the government CAN revoke your citizenship under certain cercumstances...like if you were a memeber of a "foriegn military" or if you commit "treason" (that one requires a conviction at least. But there are other ways to revoke citizenship with no trial. isn't that a warm fuzzy thought? george says you are not a citezen and hold you indefinatly...and the senate says that's great.
Actually, you can't lose your citizenship for committing treason. The only two ways to lose it are:
1.) Go up to a judge and say that you want to end your citizenship.
2.) Serve in a foreign army.

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', '
')Because it's just as importaint, if not more so, to keep the government within the bounds of it's enumerated powers.
You also realize that things that extend beyond enumerated powers also include workers' rights, environmental laws, and various other laws most people on these forums think "good", right?
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Re: Economics/Math (split from OPEC thread)

Unread postby bdmarti » Thu 19 Oct 2006, 15:10:37

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('GoIllini', '
')This is one interpretation. What happens when the U.S. government changes what the value of a "dollar" is? Say I go into the bank, give them a large, pre-1860 penny, and they give me back an indian head penny, because the federal government redefined what a penny was. This was obviously legal.


First of all, this is not a problem at all when money is defined in terms of commodities.

If I give you a 1oz penny made of silver, and you return to me a .5oz penny made of silver because of a redefinition in terms, then you have stolen from me. What I gave you is no longer a penny and needs to be converted to the new standard, or in other words, you by definition owe me 2 of the new pennies.

To allow the government to debase a currency and do what you are saying is not only dumb, but it was never intended.

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', '
')I see them as the same thing; specifically enumerated economic powers within the states. The federal government had the power to regulate the trade of commodities; it also had the separately stated power of fixing the value of money.


Where does the government have the authority to "regulate" the trade of commodities beyond defining weights and measures and defining what denominations of coins are in terms of commodities?

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', '
')That's great, but there's a comma there. I'll admit the framers saw these two as related (see above response), but in a legal document, the fact that the clauses have separate verbs means that the powers really don't go together.


$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', '
')I'm claiming that even if this were true, your argument is moot. The Supreme Court, Congress, the President, the Fed and everyone else in power believes this is constitutional, along with 99.5% of the populace, and it's been this way for about 90 years. If enough people accept an interpretation of a document long enough, that becomes the document's meaning.


This is somewhat true. The masses may come to think that something means something else entirely.
However, the pendulum swings both ways, and only by educating and voincing one's opinion can we hope to swing it back.
In addition, the meaning of law can be, and is, determined by the intent of the writers, and it isn't so hard to go back and determine that the intent of the writers of the constitution was much closer to what I claim, than what we have today. However, the corrupt people in charge are not motivated to investigate such a matter.

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', '
')This is an interesting conspiracy theory. Do you have any proof that certain presidents appointed corrupt judges? Were any of them convicted of fraud? Any of them impeached for accepting bribes?

Most conspiracies on such a scale are extremely difficult, if not impossible to carry out. You could argue we had stupid judges, but not corrupt ones.

Don't be so naive. It is easy and appropriate to argue that we have in the past and today still have corrupt judges.
Judges are people. Power corrupts. Judges are corrupted by power. Just because not all judges who are corrupt are convicted or impeached of charges, this in no way means that they weren't or are not today corrupt.

In fact, when you have corrupt congressmen, who are enjoying and abusing the same powers that you as a judiciary are not preventing them from using...why would the congress ever impeach a judge? That makes no sense...hhhmmmm...if we impeach the corrupt judge, then we have signifigantly less power? There is no motivation to place judges with integrety on the high benches once those in each branch are equally enjoying the powers they usurped but were never intended to have. Will corrupt judges start negating all the legislation passed by a corrupt congress when such acts will lead to their impeachment? hmmmm...
The system itself needs some revising. Election laws are just awful and combined with the corrupt 2 party system results in some of the least represented and apathetic voter populace of any nation in the world.

As for the "proof" you ask for, I'm afraid I'd need an objective standard to meet. If you are looking for impeachments or convictions, then you are correct that I have none, but this is a foolish standard. Had the Nazi's won the war they certainly wouldn't have been tried for war crimes, and in the same way the corrupt intentions of the FED serve the interests of judges and congressmen alike and they are not interested in fixing it. So long as they retain power, we're not likely to see the issue fixed, and even if we had a congress with integrety we'd have to overcome ignorance.

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', '
')In other words, if the government turned on the printing presses, economic chaos would ensue. The government has a fiduciary responsibility to regulate the money supply, not profit off of it.


There you go giving the "responsibility to regulate the money supply" by fiat when that is the very thing we are debating.

Furthermore, the nature of the FED is such that it is effectivly running the presses but it's doing so in an obfuscated manner.

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', '
')Not true. At some point, the economy will be unable to absorb all of the new money getting printed, and the value of the money the U.S. government can print will approach some inflation-adjusted limit.

Again, it's impossible to sustainably run the government on printing money alone.

So, we agree that inflation willl be a problem for an economy that runns the presses, is that correct?
I consider it a problem that the dollar as lost 95%+ of it's value since 1913.
With the exponential growth of the money supply, I also see it as likely that the dollar will lose even more of it's value even faster than previously experienced.
I argue that these things are a consequence of the FED, and not at all helped by the FED.
It seems that we agree that effectivly printing money is bad, but you seem to like to fool yourself into thinking that this is not what the government is doing and thus everything is ok.

Then you make the assertion that it's "impossible" to run a government by just turning on the presses. I think you are wrong.
It may be impossible to run a corrupt government by just running the presses, but not so were the government spending in a reasonable manner.
If the government ran off of 5 to 10% of it's inflation adjusted budget, like it did some 100+ years ago, then the inflation induced by the printing of limted dollars would be negligable, espessially in a growing economy.
This of course requires the government to be responsible. I'm not saying that it is, but such a thing is possible.
Further, i'm not suggesting that I now agree that the government has the power to print money, only that a responsibly run government could do so with impunity.
I do however think that once you gave such a power to the government, it would become corrupted (eventually) as it has been, and then, the government and economy would (and will) fail due not to the paying of bills with printed fiat money, but by the abuses of such a power that we can see happening before our eyes.

In addition, the FED could meet some of it's stated goals by setting ONLY the Reserve ratio for banks. We the people would not need to "borrow" from nowhere with interest to add money to the money supply, but rather a simple drop from 100% reserves to 90% reserves has a similar money injecting effect on the economy but it does not indebt anyone (or rather everyone) against their will. And uless someone were to foolishly require 0% reserves (which I would obviously call unconstitutional), there would be a very hard cap on how high debt could get....not so with the magic of the FED and it's bonds. With the FED and it's bonds debt can go as high as the market will bear...and we are pushing that to the limit.

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', '
')Actually, you can't lose your citizenship for committing treason. The only two ways to lose it are:
1.) Go up to a judge and say that you want to end your citizenship.
2.) Serve in a foreign army.


Sorry. You're Wrong.

from the state department:
$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', 'S')ection 349 of the Immigration and Nationality Act, as amended, states that U.S. citizens are subject to loss of citizenship if they perform certain acts voluntarily and with the intention to relinquish U.S. citizenship. Briefly stated, these acts include:

(1) obtaining naturalization in a foreign state (Sec. 349 (a) (1) INA);

(2) taking an oath, affirmation or other formal declaration to a foreign state or its political subdivisions (Sec. 349 (a) (2) INA);

(3) entering or serving in the armed forces of a foreign state engaged in hostilities against the U.S. or serving as a commissioned or non-commissioned officer in the armed forces of a foreign state (Sec. 349 (a) (3) INA);

(4) accepting employment with a foreign government if (a) one has the nationality of that foreign state or (b) a declaration of allegiance is required in accepting the position (Sec. 349 (a) (4) INA);

(5) formally renouncing U.S. citizenship before a U.S. consular officer outside the United States (sec. 349 (a) (5) INA);

(6) formally renouncing U.S. citizenship within the U.S. (but only "in time of war") (Sec. 349 (a) (6) INA);

(7) conviction for an act of treason (Sec. 349 (a) (7) INA).

$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', '
')You also realize that things that extend beyond enumerated powers also include workers' rights, environmental laws, and various other laws most people on these forums think "good", right?

What most people think is good isn't relevant as far as I'm concerned. There is a method to ammend the constitution, and if people are fired up about something, then they should ammend the constitution to give the government the authority to do something about it.

In extreme cases the "for the common good" clause in the constitution could be used for environmental or other issues. Obviously, it's bad for the population as a whole if nut-jobs run around detonating atom-bombs, and thus it is reasonable for the government to regulate the possestion of uranium or plutonium dispite this ability not falling under any other enumerated power.
In addition, one might make a case that pollution of the groundwater and seas and lands affects the common good enough to justify federal intervention. When I say common good, I mean it can possibly affect everyone indeiscriminantly. The effect should be universaly positive, such that you can't use it to justify taking from the rich and giving to the poor (the tax clause is good for that). The Common good clause shouldn't be used for things that are likely to affect only small subpopulations.
So, for instance, the "common good" clause wouldn't justify the federal government regulating minimum salaries or factory worker hours and other such things. Such powers may very well fall within the scope of individual states or localaties though.

but this is going way off on a tangent... I don't mind so much, 'cause there's only a few of us in here...but I'll stop anytime someone says were too far afield.
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