by lakeweb » Fri 30 Dec 2005, 21:39:25
$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('ElijahJones', '[')url=http://quote.bloomberg.com/apps/news?pid=10000103&sid=aVs0FqFKUQ54&refer=news_index]Oil Rises, Bond Yields Invert : Bloomberg[/url]
Preceding all recent recession is something called an inverted yield curve, this is when short term US bonds have a higher yield then long term bonds. Oil moved up today on supply fears for 2006, the markets moved down on expectations of diminished profits , and the dreaded inverted yield curve reared its ugly head!
Unfortunately I know precious little about this phenomenon, would anyone care to explain why an inverted yield curve would precede a recession?
It isn't so much that the inversion is 'causing' the following recession. It is that the bond market is saying the Fed is going to far. And that the short end was over tightened which in turn causes the recession.
Why would the Fed do this? They have been nudging the long end down since Volker started listening to the bond market. More than ever the Fed is stuck between a rock and a hard place. They need the long end to come down, as that is where the borrowing to fuel the economy is coming from. To coax the long end down, they have to take a hawkish stance on inflation. To do that, they have to tighten almost to the point of going overboard. Their stance is now neutral and they could actually drop the short end at the next meeting.
An inversion is not a precursor of its own; it is a prediction from the bond market. The bond market thinks that there won't be enough economic activity in the future to cause inflation.
Best, Dan.