by TWilliam » Wed 18 Jul 2007, 00:18:46
$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('PenultimateManStanding', ' ')I looked into this argument and here is the text from the 16th Amendment: "The Congress shall have power to lay and collect taxes on incomes, from whatever source derived."
PMS, one of the things most "lay" people fail to understand regarding jurisprudence, is that words frequently have distinctly different meanings within the context of law than they do in "common usage". One such example is the word "source". In the IRS tax code, "source" has a very narrow and strictly defined meaning which is decidedly NOT "wherever you get it from".
Another example I cited in a previous post, and the U.S. Supreme Court itself has
repeatedly ruled that "wages" are NOT "income". References to "gains from labor" are in reference to a
business owner's profits derived from the labor of his/her employees, not to the wages said employees receive. In
Murphy v. Internal Revenue Service and United States, the United States Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit stated: "[a]lthough the 'Congress cannot make a thing income which is not so in fact,' [ . . . ] it can
label a thing income and tax it, so long as it acts within its constitutional authority...". This is part of how "wages" become "income" and thus susceptible to taxation; when you enter an amount on that line of a 1040 form that asks you to enter "wages, salaries, tips, etc.", you are personally
declaring those monies to be an income, thus they become
labeled as such in the eyes of the law and are then legally taxable. But it is only your
willing declaration that makes them so.
This is precisely the kind of deceptive bullsh*t that enables these usurpers to rob people blind with the willing consent of those so deceived.
Once again, an
exchange is NOT a
gain.
$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('', 'T')hese and similar arguments have been universally rejected by the courts.
Rejected, yes. Disproved,
.