by firestarter » Wed 02 Aug 2006, 18:08:14
$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('rogerhb', '')$this->bbcode_second_pass_quote('ElijahJones', 'I') had said I would not post hee again, but I have to say that the question of pain is still a real question for me. Why God would allow that.... platitudes aside, the best answer I have ever heard is that He respects our freewill.
Well that explains so much, it explains the black death, spanish influenza, leprosy, still-births, deformaties.
All because god respects our freewill?
(a) god doesn't, otherwise there would not be a judgement
(b) what has freewill got to do with my above list
(c) god mysteriously did not respect freewill until the "age of reason".
And you say that is the
best answer you have? You sell yourself very cheap.
Freewill is another thorny area in Christianity. I understand very well how Luther, Calvin, Edwards, and Augustine dealt with concept, but they all left me wanting regarding the biblical end state of redeemed man. Actually Edwards had few peers regarding this concept, as even pagan philosphers refer to his works here quite liberally (viz, Kai Neilsen, RW Emerson, et al).
Still, if freewill is what seals our doom (for unbelievers) on this side of life, then why does it not on the other, resurrected side? In other words if freewill is crucial to being fully human, then why is it not crucial in the resurrected, perfected state in heaven? The bible states clearly that the saints in heaven have no chance of falling away in sin anymore for they have been perfected in Christ, thus sealed with the Holy Spirit.
They will not sin, ever again. Have they lost their freewill.?
The obvious question, then, is why didn't God create man in this perfect state in the beginning (thus avoiding humanities subsequent untold pain and suffering). The answer from Christans usually come back to the freewill argument, but as I demonstrated above if freewill is so sacred then how is it that man suffers no more suseptibility to sin in Heaven because his proclivity to sin has been forever removed? If you argue mans new heavenly liberation is because man will not sin anymore then it begs the question as to why he had to sin in the first place (remember, in Genesis, when God created man it was a good creation, and yet man sinned, or as the many would say, He gave man freewill to
possibly sin). Talk about a conundrum...
In summary:
1-Man is created "good" by God.
2-In waht seems like a slam dunk argument for dualism, man succumbs to sin (tempted of the devil) and hereby rejects God because God supposedly gave him freewill.
3-A portion of mankind, because of his freewill (he chooses God), makes it to the last state of man and will never sin again ( no more freewill, I guess).
To be continued....