SPG,
The video correctly points out that two problems in the text of the bill: (1) the use of "or" to differentiate that "force" and "violence" are not the same thing; (2) that the term "force" is not a defined term.
Now, I can say that as a lawyer I often have to deal with undefined terms in legislation, which causes all kinds of problems for the courts. Unless the Congressional record gives some hint as to its meaning, courts will often use accepted common definitions of the words contained in legislation - yes, the courts will use dictionaries if necessary. I had a decision on appeal which cited the dictionary definition to define a term. Sounds crazy? Its because statutes are poorly drafted.
Courts will sometimes use "Black's Law Dictionary" to define common legal terms. So, I went to Black's 5th Edition and looked up the definition of "force" and it gave the following: "Power dynamically considered, that is, in motion or in action: constraining power, compulsion; strength directed to an end." There were a few other analogies for torts etc., but the problem pointed out in the video stands - the proposed legislation differentiates force from violence and does not define "force" for purposes of the legislation.
Below is a link to the legislation. It verifies the language cited in the video is the language used in the current version of the house bill.
Lanuage Text
So, I see a problem in the language of this bill. I see a problem because, as pointed out by the video, undefined terms allow Federal authorities to argue they have power that is otherwise prohibited by the Bill of Rights. Now, ultimately the Courts may void the language of the law as being unconstitutional, but I would have to be the individual that is the test case. Further, its easier to protect your rights by not allowing this stuff into law than fighting it afterwards.
I think this is potentially more serious than you are giving it credit for. The Bush administration has taken advantage of every implied power it can argue it has, so, all the more reason to worry that gov't will take advantage of any implied power it has been given.
I also don't understand the analogy your trying to make with your state criminal definition allowing force to defend against force. In the state statute you give, its saying one can use force to defend oneself against unlawful force. This is common, but wow does that even apply to a law wherein the Federal govt' is criminalizing "terrorism" by "force" that isn't defined as "violence." In the state case, there is no differentiation between force and violence as in the Federal statute. In fact, every state I know has defined criminal terms to include assault (usually threat of force), battery (usually the actual use of force) etc. I'm not following.